Do you realise just how silly you are asking the bible to say what you exactly want it to say?
Anyways it is so simple to debunk you : I will break it up into 2
(1)Jesus said I am a prophet ; in Bible (NIV)
(2) Jesus said don't worship me ; in Bible (NIV)
First of all , by definition of the bible , a prophet is as per deut18:18 (Bible NIV)
I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brothers; I will put my words in his mouth, and he will tell them everything I command him.
Jesus own admission of him being a prophet , joh12:49 (Bible NIV)
For I did not speak of my own accord, but the Father who sent me commanded me what to say and how to say it.
Therefore by Jesus own admission , he fits the requirement of being a prophet meaning he admitted to being a Prophet deut18:18
Furthermore , Jesus stated to worship God only
luk4:8
Jesus answered, "It is written: 'Worship the Lord your God and serve him only.
If now I combine all the verses I get Jesus admitting he is a prophet and ask to worship God only (meaning do not worship him)
This is because Jesus admitted there is only 1 true God and him being send by the 1 true God , joh17:3
Now this is eternal life: that they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent.
(1)Jesus said I am a prophet ; in Bible (NIV)
(2) Jesus said don't worship me ; in Bible (NIV)
You pick one verse and not reading the entire Bible.....thats how muslims train think
Not even a single proof in Bible or Quran proof that Jesus is prophet.
John 10:30New International Version (NIV)
30 I and the Father are one.”
John 14:8-9New International Version (NIV)
8 Philip said, “Lord, show us the Father and that will be enough for us.”
9 Jesus answered: “Don’t you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’?
"The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel" (which means "God with us").
Truth.8 replied at 15-1-2016 11:37 AM
You pick one verse and not reading the entire Bible.....thats how muslims train think
Not even a single proof in Bible or Quran proof that Jesus is prophet.
John 10:30New International Version (NIV)
30 I and the Father are one.”
John 14:8-9New International Version (NIV)
8 Philip said, “Lord, show us the Father and that will be enough for us.”
9 Jesus answered: “Don’t you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’?
"The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel" (which means "God with us").
Matthew 1:23
Is Jesus GOD???
Ha ha , instead of you bitching away at 'only one verse' , why can't you stand your ground and discuss your opinion on the verses I provided in my post#21. I count 4 verses not certainly 1 per your claim to prove that Jesus did say he was/is a Prophet and not to worship him.
Instead you again run to a couple of verses trying to prove that Jesus is God. Ok then , I will stand my ground and discuss with you the verses you brought up.
joh10:30 , is not about Jesus being God. If you read before and further on , the context of this verse is about Jesus and his father being one in purpose (the context from verse 25 onwards). You are doing exactly the same as what you have been bitching about single verse. Cakap tak serupa bikin ya. If you want to take joh10:30 literally , then I suggest you refer to joh17:21
that all of them may be one, Father, just as you are in me and I am in you. May they also be in us so that the world may believe that you have sent me.
LOL , now the disciples are also in Jesus and the Father. If I go by your logic , the disciples are also God(s).
How can joh14:8-9 in any way state that Jesus is God? Philip wanted to see the Father but no one can see God per joh1:18. Therefore Jesus answer is about him being sent by God exercising power and authority as given to him. This can be referenced back to exo23:20-21
20 "See, I am sending an angel ahead of you to guard you along the way and to bring you to the place I have prepared.
21 Pay attention to him and listen to what he says. Do not rebel against him; he will not forgive your rebellion, since my Name is in him
Mat1:23 , the claim of Imanuel does not mean Jesus is God. It merely means 'God is with us' not 'Jesus is God'. 2cor5:19 provides an explanation to this verse
that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting men's sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of reconciliation.
This is what you call symbolism in a name. This just mean , God was in Christ not God was Christ. If you take it literally , you will have a problem with other parts of the bible. Take for example 'Elijah' - the name means 'God Jehovah'. If one is to follow your logic , Elijah is God.
Macamana tambi? Can you now stand your ground to refute me by giving your part of the discussion or you are just going to run off to some other verses?
Mat1:23 , the claim of Imanuel does not mean Jesus is God. It merely means 'God is with us' not 'Jesus is God'. 2cor5:19 provides an explanation to this verse
God with us it refer to Jesus...secondly, it a sign God telling to peoples that Mary in untouched and bear a child ...all this proof that Jesus is God...
Jesus raised dead...nobody does that ...only GOD can perfrom such...so simple understanding Jesus is God ..
Truth.8 replied at 16-1-2016 10:46 AM
God with us it refer to Jesus...secondly, it a sign God telling to peoples that Mary in untouched and bear a child ...all this proof that Jesus is God...
Jesus raised dead...nobody does that ...only GOD can perfrom such...so simple understanding Jesus is God ..
I know God is with us means it refer to Jesus but it does state God is Jesusor vise versa. Therefore Imanuel does not in any way mean Jesus is God.
** It should be : It does not state God is Jesus or vise versa
If you claim Jesus is God because he was from a virgin birth then Adam is a bigger God , No father nor mother.
If you claim Jesus is God because he could ressurect the dead then (inthe bible)
1. Elijah raised the son of the Zarephath widow from the dead (1 Kings 17:17-22).
2. Elisha raised the son of the Shunammite woman from the dead (2 Kings 4:32-35).
3. Peter raised Dorcas from the dead (Acts 9:36-41).
Just who was Jesus? Was He God or was He a man? Was He human or was He divine? If someone were to ask you these questions, how would you answer, and better yet, how would you prove it? Most of professing Christianity and theologians have struggled over this question for millennia and are confused about the answer. We should not be in confusion. We need to know, without a doubt, who and what Jesus was. Let’s see what the scriptures say about Christ - was He God or human.
Jesus Divine
JOHN 1:1-3, 14-15 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made. (14) And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father …. (15) John bore witness of Him and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, 'He who comes after me is preferred before me, for He was before me.'”
1. Who is the “Word”? By what other name is He known? Read verses 29-30.
2. According to this passage, who created all things?
3. What other scripture tells us who created all things in the beginning? What conclusion must one come to if these two scriptures claim that this Personage created all things?
4. How is it possible for one to come after a certain person and yet to have been before that same person? That is what John claims in verse 15.
COMMENT: John shows that the Word, the God of the Old Testament, became Jesus of Nazareth. That is, the Word, Jesus, was God, in the flesh. That is the point that John is making here.
JOHN 9:35-38 Jesus heard that they had cast him out; and when He had found him, He said to him, “Do you believe in the Son of God?” He answered and said, who is He, Lord, that I may believe in Him?” And Jesus said to him, “you have both seen Him and it is He who is talking with you.” Then he said, “Lord, I believe!” And he worshiped Him.
5. Why would Jesus allow this man to worship Him? Who only are we to worship?
Who only is worthy of worship?
NOTE: There are plenty of examples in the Bible that show even an angel of highest rank would not let man worship him.
LUKE 9:47 And Jesus, perceiving the thought of their heart, took a little child and set him by Him….
6. Is it possible for a human to read the thoughts of others? Who can?
JOHN 8:56-58 “your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad.” Then the Jews said to Him, “You are not yet fifty years old and have you seen Abraham?” Jesus said to them, Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.”
7. What did Jesus mean by “I AM”?
8. Who did Jesus Himself claim to be?
9. What were the Jews reaction? Read verse 59. Why did they react that way?
Jesus Human
1. I think we can all agree that the Bible teaches that Jesus was God. But, God is immortal (I Tim. 6:16), yet Jesus died. How is it possible that Jesus died if He was divine?
Hebrews 4:14-15 Seeing then that we have a great High Priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our confession. For we do not have a High Priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but was in all points tempted as we are, yet without sin.
2. Jesus was tempted. Can God be tempted? Read James 1:13 and comment.
3. How can Jesus be divine and still be tempted? What does Jesus' weaknesses reveal about His nature?
4. Did Satan tempt Jesus? Read Matthew 4.
COMMENT: Satan tried to get to Jesus just as he got to Adam, by appealing to His pride, vanity and lusts of the human flesh. Satan tried to get Jesus to do the same as Adam: to go it alone apart from God. Adam decided for Himself what was good and what was evil, and separated himself from his relationship with God. Think of this, if Jesus could not have sinned, if it was impossible for Him to sin, would Satan have wasted his time trying to tempt him to sin? Jesus could have sinned, but He didn't, and the whole world owes Him for that. We have been redeemed, been bought and paid for, and, therefore we owe our lives to Jesus.
John 1:14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us….
5. What does this passage teach us about the nature of Jesus?
6. Why was it necessary for God to come in human flesh? Consider Hebrews 2:9.
Comment: If Christ were flesh only, His death would have only saved Himself. But because He was God in the flesh, His life was worth more than all of mankind put together, because He created them. Therefore, His life and death that He gave for us paid the penalty for all of man's sins. But if Christ was God only, He could not have died. He was flesh and blood just as we are flesh and blood. What a tremendous act of love from our Creator to us: To become God in the flesh, human and divine to save us from the penalty of our sins, which is death.
Summary
So who was Jesus? Jesus was both Man and God. That's what the Bible teaches; that's what the apostles taught; that's what Jesus taught; and that's what the church teaches today. Jesus was both man and God so that He could be a perfect sacrifice to save all of mankind from the penalty of death. There is no confusion about that.
Aiyoyo tambi , why repeat already refuted arguments over and over again hoping for it to be true.
I have already stated , joh1:1-3 is about the attribute of God. There is no way Jesus can be God because an attribute of God is not God. Can you comment on this instead of repeating yourself over and over again.
This is a good question. If Jeus is God , can God die? Can you now explain just how can God die? Tak logik betul
You appeal to heb2:9? Lets look at heb2:9
But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone
It does not even state Jesus is God. In fact , Jesus is made a little lower than the angels. Macamana tambi? 'A little lower than angels' to you means God?
Another question - Can you explain just how is the death of one person can absolve the sins of others? It seem that the Christian God wants a human sacrifice. Isn't this a pagan concept?
This is a good question. If Jeus is God , can God die? Can you now explain just how can God die? Tak logik betul
Why die? did you read what I wrote or just finding fault ??? if Jesus did not die , how we going resurrected???? remem Jesus was divine in nature as GOD but came as flesh and blood....if Jesus comes as GOD in spiritual manner, we die as the Bible says anyone see GOD die.
You need to study the Bible not pick one verses
"There Is One God, the Father...and One Lord, Jesus Christ"
A number of scriptural passages identify Jesus Christ as God along with God the Father. Yet some contend that the apostle Paul in 1 Corinthians 8 denied the divinity of Christ in applying the distinction God exclusively to the Father. Let's consider what Paul was actually saying here - and what he wasn't. In a discussion over whether Christians could eat meat sacrificed to idols, Paul agreed that idols were powerless and represented false gods, stating: “About eating food offered to idols, then, we know that ‘an idol is nothing in the world,’ and that ‘there is no God but one.’ For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth—as there are many ‘gods’ and many ‘lords’—yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things, and we for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and we through Him” ([url=]1 Corinthians 8:4-6[/url], HCSB).
So does the fact that “for us there is one God, the Father,” mean that Jesus cannot also be God? Initially it might seem so. But consider a parallel question based on the same passage: Does the fact that “for us there is … one Lord, Jesus Christ,” mean that the Father cannot also be Lord?
This is obviously not the case, for the Father is certainly Lord—meaning Master and Ruler. Jesus prayed, “I thank You, Father, Lord of heaven and earth” ([url=]Matthew 11:25[/url]). And [url=]Revelation 11:15[/url] mentions the Kingdom “of our Lord and of His Christ.” Jesus is indeed Lord, but obviously the Father is Lord above Him. This does not contradict Paul’s statement. And neither do other verses that proclaim the deity of Christ.
Rather than excluding Jesus from being God, a careful reading of [url=]1 Corinthians 8:4-6[/url] should help us to see that He is included in the divine identity. Paul is briefly affirming the contrast between pagan polytheism (the belief in many gods) and true monotheism (the belief in just one God). But why doesn’t he limit his affirmation that “there is no God but one” to stating only that “there is one God, the Father”? Why does he even mention “one Lord, Jesus Christ,” in this context?
Surely it is because Jesus is an important part of what God is. As elsewhere, Paul shows here that while “all things”—the entire created realm, both physical and spiritual—is ultimately from God the Father, it was all actually made through Jesus Christ. And Jesus rules over it all as Lord under the Father. Does “Lord” designate divinity? Some maintain that of the terms “God” and “Lord” used here, only “God” designates divinity in context. It is true that the term Lord does not always denote deity. It can refer to any master—divine, human or otherwise. Yet we should note the parallelism in what Paul has written. He refers to the pagans’ “so-called gods” as both “many ‘gods’ and many ‘lords.’” Thus he includes the latter term “lords” as designating deity—whether the imaginary gods of the pagans or human rulers looked on as divine. In parallel, Paul refers to the true God as both “one God” and “one Lord.” So “Lord” in this context likewise designates divinity.
In fact, the passage here recognizes far more power and rule belonging to the Lord Jesus Christ than what the pagan systems attributed to their various gods. This point is vital to understanding the matter at hand. Paul acknowledges the label of “gods” for the pagan objects of worship, each believed to have a limited sphere of power. Yet he points out that Jesus, “through whom are all things,” is the Maker of all that exists, including ourselves!
By the very terminology Paul employs here, Jesus must rank as divine. For how can the imaginary Aphrodite or Venus, goddess of love appearing as the evening star, be classified as deity while Jesus, Maker of all the stars and of man and woman and of human love—having greater power and lordship than that attributed to all of the pagan gods and goddesses combined—not be classified as deity?
With this in mind, some label Jesus as a god—but that would imply power over a limited sphere. Yet Jesus has dominion over everything that exists with the exception of only one thing—the Father, who is over Him. Jesus is thus subordinate to the Father, but the Father has entrusted “all authority” and “all things” to Him ([url=]Matthew 28:18[/url]; [url=]1 Corinthians 15:27-28[/url]). And as explained elsewhere, Jesus is in perfect and total agreement with the Father. Both crucial to defining God So if both Father and Son are God and both are Lord, why does Paul divide Them out as “one God, the Father” and “one Lord, Jesus Christ”? We are not explicitly told, but the classification is used elsewhere in Scripture. In [url=]Psalms 110:1[/url], Israel’s King David referred to an intermediary between God and himself as Lord. The verse begins: “The Lord [ Yhwh ] said to my Lord …” As the New Testament makes plain, Yhwh (the Eternal God) in this case designates the Father, who is speaking to the One who became Jesus Christ, David’s immediate Lord, ruling on the Father’s behalf.
We also have Jesus’ own prayer to the Father the night before His death, wherein He stated, “And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent” ([url=]John 17:3[/url]). Some regard this verse as likewise denying the divinity of Christ, but it assuredly does not. Besides the fact that Jesus said this while His power was limited in human flesh, when only the Father could act throughout the universe as God ([url=]John 5:30[/url]; [url=]John 14:10[/url]), the obvious intent is that He was pointing to the Father as the true focus of our worship, with Himself as the Father’s representative serving as intermediary.
This latter fact is evidently what Paul had in mind as well. In declaring the Father as the one God, he was referring to exclusivity of position, not exclusivity of divine nature. Just as Christ Himself did, Paul was acknowledging the Father as the Supreme Being over all and the focus of our worship. While “all should honor the Son just as they honor the Father” ([url=]John 5:23[/url]), it should be evident that our honor of the Son is still relative to our honor of the Father. We honor the Son in this way because the Father has so ordained it. Thus, the Son is not the one God in the sense of the Supreme Being—and Paul therefore did not include Him in that designation.
But this does not exclude the Son from being God in the sense of sharing the same level of existence with the Father and sharing rule with the Father over all—and of acting as God on the Father’s behalf throughout eternity, past and future. For the Son is in fact God in this very sense. Yet had Paul referred to Jesus as God in this particular context of denying polytheism and labeling the Father as the “one God,” it would likely have resulted in confusion for many. So he chose to use a different distinction, Lord —the same title Paul typically used for Jesus in his writings.
Designating Jesus as the “one Lord” stresses His role as the One who exercises God’s rule over creation—the point being that the Father does not do so directly but acts through Jesus Christ. This fact is a crucial aspect of defining God. And particularly for us, just as David recognized, Jesus is our immediate Lord and Master—the Father being ultimate Lord and Master. But there is no division in allegiance, for devotion to Christ is the way we are devoted to the Father. So again, the fact that the Father is Lord does not contradict Jesus being the “one Lord.” For their lordship is not divided. Rather, the Father rules through the Son.
This then, in stark contrast to the competing deities of pagan polytheism, is Paul’s brief explanation of true monotheism—God the Father, who is supreme, working through the Son, who perfectly carries out His will, these two being one in unity. And it is through Jesus that we worship and serve the Father. Thus, we should be able to see that Paul in 1 Corinthians 8 was not denying the deity of Christ but was, rather, affirming it through carefully chosen wording.
Truth.8 replied at 19-1-2016 10:32 AM
Why die? did you read what I wrote or just finding fault ??? if Jesus did not die , how we going resurrected???? remem Jesus was divine in nature as GOD but came as flesh and blood....if Jesus comes as GOD in spiritual manner, we die as the Bible says anyone see GOD die.
You need to study the Bible not pick one verses
"There Is One God, the Father...and One Lord, Jesus Christ"
A number of scriptural passages identify Jesus Christ as God along with God the Father. Yet some contend that the apostle Paul in 1 Corinthians 8 denied the divinity of Christ in applying the distinction God exclusively to the Father. Let's consider what Paul was actually saying here - and what he wasn't. In a discussion over whether Christians could eat meat sacrificed to idols, Paul agreed that idols were powerless and represented false gods, stating: “About eating food offered to idols, then, we know that ‘an idol is nothing in the world,’ and that ‘there is no God but one.’ For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth—as there are many ‘gods’ and many ‘lords’—yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things, and we for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and we through Him” ([url=]1 Corinthians 8:4-6[/url], HCSB).
So does the fact that “for us there is one God, the Father,” mean that Jesus cannot also be God? Initially it might seem so. But consider a parallel question based on the same passage: Does the fact that “for us there is … one Lord, Jesus Christ,” mean that the Father cannot also be Lord?
This is obviously not the case, for the Father is certainly Lord—meaning Master and Ruler. Jesus prayed, “I thank You, Father, Lord of heaven and earth” ([url=]Matthew 11:25[/url]). And [url=]Revelation 11:15[/url] mentions the Kingdom “of our Lord and of His Christ.” Jesus is indeed Lord, but obviously the Father is Lord above Him. This does not contradict Paul’s statement. And neither do other verses that proclaim the deity of Christ.
Rather than excluding Jesus from being God, a careful reading of [url=]1 Corinthians 8:4-6[/url] should help us to see that He is included in the divine identity. Paul is briefly affirming the contrast between pagan polytheism (the belief in many gods) and true monotheism (the belief in just one God). But why doesn’t he limit his affirmation that “there is no God but one” to stating only that “there is one God, the Father”? Why does he even mention “one Lord, Jesus Christ,” in this context?
Surely it is because Jesus is an important part of what God is. As elsewhere, Paul shows here that while “all things”—the entire created realm, both physical and spiritual—is ultimately from God the Father, it was all actually made through Jesus Christ. And Jesus rules over it all as Lord under the Father. Does “Lord” designate divinity? Some maintain that of the terms “God” and “Lord” used here, only “God” designates divinity in context. It is true that the term Lord does not always denote deity. It can refer to any master—divine, human or otherwise. Yet we should note the parallelism in what Paul has written. He refers to the pagans’ “so-called gods” as both “many ‘gods’ and many ‘lords.’” Thus he includes the latter term “lords” as designating deity—whether the imaginary gods of the pagans or human rulers looked on as divine. In parallel, Paul refers to the true God as both “one God” and “one Lord.” So “Lord” in this context likewise designates divinity.
In fact, the passage here recognizes far more power and rule belonging to the Lord Jesus Christ than what the pagan systems attributed to their various gods. This point is vital to understanding the matter at hand. Paul acknowledges the label of “gods” for the pagan objects of worship, each believed to have a limited sphere of power. Yet he points out that Jesus, “through whom are all things,” is the Maker of all that exists, including ourselves!
By the very terminology Paul employs here, Jesus must rank as divine. For how can the imaginary Aphrodite or Venus, goddess of love appearing as the evening star, be classified as deity while Jesus, Maker of all the stars and of man and woman and of human love—having greater power and lordship than that attributed to all of the pagan gods and goddesses combined—not be classified as deity?
With this in mind, some label Jesus as a god—but that would imply power over a limited sphere. Yet Jesus has dominion over everything that exists with the exception of only one thing—the Father, who is over Him. Jesus is thus subordinate to the Father, but the Father has entrusted “all authority” and “all things” to Him ([url=]Matthew 28:18[/url]; [url=]1 Corinthians 15:27-28[/url]). And as explained elsewhere, Jesus is in perfect and total agreement with the Father. Both crucial to defining GodSo if both Father and Son are God and both are Lord, why does Paul divide Them out as “one God, the Father” and “one Lord, Jesus Christ”? We are not explicitly told, but the classification is used elsewhere in Scripture. In [url=]Psalms 110:1[/url], Israel’s King David referred to an intermediary between God and himself as Lord. The verse begins: “The Lord [ Yhwh ] said to my Lord …” As the New Testament makes plain, Yhwh (the Eternal God) in this case designates the Father, who is speaking to the One who became Jesus Christ, David’s immediate Lord, ruling on the Father’s behalf.
We also have Jesus’ own prayer to the Father the night before His death, wherein He stated, “And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent” ([url=]John 17:3[/url]). Some regard this verse as likewise denying the divinity of Christ, but it assuredly does not. Besides the fact that Jesus said this while His power was limited in human flesh, when only the Father could act throughout the universe as God ([url=]John 5:30[/url]; [url=]John 14:10[/url]), the obvious intent is that He was pointing to the Father as the true focus of our worship, with Himself as the Father’s representative serving as intermediary.
This latter fact is evidently what Paul had in mind as well. In declaring the Father as the one God, he was referring to exclusivity of position, not exclusivity of divine nature. Just as Christ Himself did, Paul was acknowledging the Father as the Supreme Being over all and the focus of our worship. While “all should honor the Son just as they honor the Father” ([url=]John 5:23[/url]), it should be evident that our honor of the Son is still relative to our honor of the Father. We honor the Son in this way because the Father has so ordained it. Thus, the Son is not the one God in the sense of the Supreme Being—and Paul therefore did not include Him in that designation.
But this does not exclude the Son from being God in the sense of sharing the same level of existence with the Father and sharing rule with the Father over all—and of acting as God on the Father’s behalf throughout eternity, past and future. For the Son is in fact God in this very sense. Yet had Paul referred to Jesus as God in this particular context of denying polytheism and labeling the Father as the “one God,” it would likely have resulted in confusion for many. So he chose to use a different distinction, Lord —the same title Paul typically used for Jesus in his writings.
Designating Jesus as the “one Lord” stresses His role as the One who exercises God’s rule over creation—the point being that the Father does not do so directly but acts through Jesus Christ. This fact is a crucial aspect of defining God. And particularly for us, just as David recognized, Jesus is our immediate Lord and Master—the Father being ultimate Lord and Master. But there is no division in allegiance, for devotion to Christ is the way we are devoted to the Father. So again, the fact that the Father is Lord does not contradict Jesus being the “one Lord.” For their lordship is not divided. Rather, the Father rules through the Son.
This then, in stark contrast to the competing deities of pagan polytheism, is Paul’s brief explanation of true monotheism—God the Father, who is supreme, working through the Son, who perfectly carries out His will, these two being one in unity. And it is through Jesus that we worship and serve the Father. Thus, we should be able to see that Paul in 1 Corinthians 8 was not denying the deity of Christ but was, rather, affirming it through carefully chosen wording.
You still have not answered my question. If Jesus is God , how can God die? What kind of God can die?
In addition you still need to answer - just how is it that one person's death can absolve all others of their sins? This does not make sense.
If you talk about resurrection , there has already been resurrection in the passages I quoted in my post#26. Therefore your argument about Jesus dying and be resurrected so that all can be resurrected is just plain BS.
Per underlined above : It is very clear that there is only ONE God , him being the Father. Therefore Jesus is not God but just having a title of master or leader etc. The argument from the article is very weak. It plays around the semantics of 'lord'.
LOL , per the underlined :
Jesus is indeed Lord, but obviously the Father is Lord above Him. This does not contradict Paul’s statement. And neither do other verses that proclaim the deity of Christ.
And Jesus rules over it all as Lord under the Father.
Now you agree that Jesus is under the Father. If Jesus is God , that means he is
(1) a lesser God
(2) a separate God and personality from the Father
Therefore why are you arguing that there is only 1 God whereas it is very clear that you now have 2 Gods whom Jesus is the lesser God.
This is an important point :
So if both Father and Son are God and both are Lord, why does Paul divide Them out as “one God, the Father” and “one Lord, Jesus Christ”? We are not explicitly told, but the classification is used elsewhere in Scripture. In [url=]Psalms 110:1[/url], Israel’s King David referred to an intermediary between God and himself as Lord
You actually don't know why Jesus is called 'lord' and not God is because it is not explicitly told in the bible? It is really very simple - Jesus has never proclaim himself to be God and demand worship. Reference is being made to King David in the OT (psalms). However the crucial point here is that it is known and recognised that King David is just a human being , not God. Therefore we can sort of think that he is an intermediary to God , as all prophets are.
Ding dong....you lost again...already explained in crystal clear
Can You Prove Jesus is God?
Where in the Bible does it say that Jesus claimed to be God?
Many people have come to my door in hopes of proving that Jesus never claimed to be God because he wasn’t God. Here are some verses that show their argument to have no merit.
"The Jews answered Him (Jesus), 'For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make yourself out to be God.' ” (John 10:33)
Jesus had obviously claimed to be God. So just what had He said to upset His Jewish audience so much?
“I and the Father are one.” (John 10:30)
He didn’t say that He was simply like the Father. He said that they were “one.” In verse 36, Jesus makes it clear that He had referred to Himself as the “Son of God.” Logic alone would tell us that the “Son” of God would possess the same deity as the Father. Man begets man. God begets God. The Jews, however, didn’t believe any of His claims. Getting nowhere with them, Jesus then focused their attention on the works that He had done and would continue to do. If He wasn’t God, He reasoned, how could He have performed all those miracles? He supported His claim to be God by saying,
“…that you may know and understand that the Father is in Me, and I in the Father." (John 10:38)
During the Last Supper, just after washing the disciples’ feet, Jesus made a bold statement:
“You call Me Teacher and Lord; and you are right, for so I am.” (John 13:13)
The New Testament was originally written in Greek. The Greek word for “Lord” is Kurios, meaning “God—supreme in authority. Jesus was making the point that they were to follow the example (serving one another) set by God Himself. Later that evening, He reiterated His claim by saying to Philip,
“…He who has seen Me has seen the Father.” (John 14:9)
Perhaps the most direct and profound example of Jesus claiming to be God is found at the end of the eighth chapter of John.
Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham as born, I am.” (John 8:58)
This may seem like a confusing answer, but the Jews knew exactly what He was claiming. By using the term “I am,” He was making Himself out to be Yahweh (God) of the Old Testament. We know that the Jews understood His claim, since verse 59 tells us that they wanted to stone Him. He was claiming to have existed not only before Abraham, but eternally. We find the name “I AM” first used when God called Moses to lead the Israelites out of bondage in Egypt. Not being crazy about the whole idea, Moses started making excuses. If he told the “sons of Israel” that the God of their fathers had sent him to them, what should he say if they asked, “What is His name?”
And God said to Moses, “I AM WHO I AM”; and He said, “Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, ‘I AM has sent me to you.’ ”
Here, God, in giving this name, gives the essential meaning of Yahweh—I am the One who is. By referring to Himself with the same name, Jesus is unmistakably claiming to be God. Anyone who argues that Jesus never made such a claim simply hasn’t bothered to search the Scriptures for themselves.
You in running all over the place copy pasting and not answering any questions is evidence that you do not have a grasp of the on hand argument. You cannot even stand your ground to defend your belief of the 2 Gods in the Godhead.
I repeat my questions :
(1) If Jesus is God , how can God die?
(2) What kind of God can die?
(3) Just how is it that one person's death can absolve all others of their sins? This does not make sense.
Lets look at the verses you quoted trying to argue that Jesus is God :
- joh10:30 and joh10:33 - I disagree with the rationale of your argument. If you read the passage from verses 22 right up to 42 you can see the context of Jesus argument. He is stating the following
(a) he and the Father is one in purpose
(b) 'god' is a term denoting religious people , judges etc , joh10:34-36
34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods” ’?
35 If he called them ‘gods,’ to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be set aside—
36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’?
Therefore you in arguing that Jesus is God with reference to these verses is completely refuted by the verses that comes later in joh10.
- the so called 'I Am' statement , suddenly Jesus is God (joh8:58 “Very truly I tell you,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!”)
Can you read the statement carefully (10x if needed)?
If Jesus is trying to say he existed before Abraham he would have said 'I WAS' instead of 'I AM'. 'I Am' can mean that he is already in God's foreknowledge being a messiah. It is in no way stating that he is God and this is confirmed in joh10 where he used the word 'god' for the judges and religious people and he only proclaim himself to be the 'son of God'. The title of 'son of God' is not in any way being God.
Can you stand your ground to defend your views or are you going to run to another copy paste? This means that you do not have any understanding of your own faith hence the inability to argue and defend yourself.
Very simple understanding yet Muslims like you still ignorance to understand Jesus being GOD.
In judgment day, Jesus will judge us….not Muhammad or any prophets …very simple understanding.
Only GOD has the power to judge . meaning Jesus is God….
In judgment day, Jesus will judge us….not Muhammad or any prophets …very simple understanding.
Only GOD has the power to judge . meaning Jesus is God….
You got serious problem in understanding …
How come you never answer to anything but run from one verse to another then blame others of not understanding the issue? Just how can anyone understand if you do not stand your ground and defend your argument.
You still have not answered :
(1) If Jesus is God , how can God die?
(2) What kind of God can die?
(3) Just how is it that one person's death can absolve all others of their sins? This does not make sense.
Now you run off to the issue that since Jesus is the judge in the judgement day , then he is God. Ok then lets examine the said verses (Bible NIV)
joh5:22 Moreover, the Father judges no one, but has entrusted all judgment to the Son,
joh5:30 By myself I can do nothing; I judge only as I hear, and my judgment is just, for I seek not to please myself but him who sent me.
rom2:16 This will take place on the day when God judges people’s secrets through Jesus Christ, as my gospel declares.
These verses inform us that Jesus judges on the authority given to him by God. To make it clear to you - God gave Jesus the authority to be the judge. Therefore how can Jesus be God? You mean Jesus is a lesser God than the Father? The Father is the all powerful and Jesus has to wait for authority to be given to him.
In light of these verses can you explain just how can Jesus be God?
Where did Jesus say, ‘I am only a prophet,don’t worship me,’ in those exact words?”
John 10:30, the context means that He is claiming to beequal to God (the Father).
Jesus claims divinity in John 8:24 and John 8:58. You mustcross-reference these with Exodus 3:14.
Let me post the verses for the record. Exodus 3:14, "AndGod said to Moses, I AM WHO I AM; and He said, Thus you shall say to the sonsof Israel, I AM has sent me to you."
John 8:24, "Therefore I said therefore to you,that you shall die in your sins; for unless you believe that I am He, you shalldie in your sins. (the word "he" is not in the original greek). John8:58, "Jesus said to them, Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham wasborn, I am."
Let me post the verses for the record. Exodus 3:14, "AndGod said to Moses, I AM WHO I AM; and He said, Thus you shall say to the sonsof Israel, I AM has sent me to you."
John 8:24, "Therefore I said therefore to you,that you shall die in your sins; for unless you believe that I am He, you shalldie in your sins. (the word "he" is not in the original greek). John8:58, "Jesus said to them, Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham wasborn, I am."
Now, how come Jesus come during Judgment days to judge humansin earth? Did it proof Jesus is God? Yes or no????
Do you believe that Jesus Christ is God in flesh or not?
I can sense you hatred towards to GOD.
let me educate you:
GOD is universe....one not necessary to be muslims-hindus or whatever religion. Jesus did not promote religion rather to tesify GOD....
just worshipped GOD in simple manner and thanking HIM in our life....solve problem...or yes : sincere,honest and all the postitive ...
Where did Jesus say, ‘I am only a prophet,don’t worship me,’ in those exact words?”
John 10:30, the context means that He is claiming to beequal to God (the Father).
Jesus claims divinity in John 8:24 and John 8:58. You mustcross-reference these with Exodus 3:14.
Let me post the verses for the record. Exodus 3:14, "AndGod said to Moses, I AM WHO I AM; and He said, Thus you shall say to the sonsof Israel, I AM has sent me to you."
John 8:24, "Therefore I said therefore to you,that you shall die in your sins; for unless you believe that I am He, you shalldie in your sins. (the word "he" is not in the original greek). John8:58, "Jesus said to them, Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham wasborn, I am."
Let me post the verses for the record. Exodus 3:14, "AndGod said to Moses, I AM WHO I AM; and He said, Thus you shall say to the sonsof Israel, I AM has sent me to you."
John 8:24, "Therefore I said therefore to you,that you shall die in your sins; for unless you believe that I am He, you shalldie in your sins. (the word "he" is not in the original greek). John8:58, "Jesus said to them, Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham wasborn, I am."
Now, how come Jesus come during Judgment days to judge humansin earth? Did it proof Jesus is God? Yes or no????
Do you believe that Jesus Christ is God in flesh or not?
Why are you repeating already addressed issues over and over again? You cannot address the issues put forth?
Where Jesus said that he was just a prophet - see my post#21
Answer to joh10:30 - see my post#24
About Jesus saying 'I AM' - see my post#32
About Jesus being the judge - see my post#34
Can you answer the following questions :
(1) If Jesus is God , how can God die?
(2) What kind of God can die?
(3) Just how is it that one person's death can absolve all others of their sins? This does not make sense.
(4) Authority to judge is given to Jesus by God. How can a God receive authority from another God? Are you admitting that Jesus is a lesser God?
Jesus said to them, Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am."
Now, how come Jesus come during Judgment days to judge humansin earth? Did it proof Jesus is God? Yes or no????
Do you believe that Jesus Christ is God in flesh or not?
Post time 15-1-2016 12:22 AM
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