I dont give shit about islam is growing. is number counts ....also muslims coming come out from islam....many do not delcared ...afraid...one example is: the famous hindu dancer who is muslim by name only....if you visit his home...there hindu diety .....that explained the so called islam is growing
Truth.8 replied at 20-5-2016 01:55 PM
I dont give shit about islam is growing. is number counts ....also muslims coming come out from islam....many do not delcared ...afraid...one example is: the famous hindu dancer who is muslim by name only....if you visit his home...there hindu diety .....that explained the so called islam is growing
Don't give a shit or you are worried? The latter is more likely.
You know why , Christianity and the bible couldn't even answer such a simple question :
if the Holy Spirit were already present on Earth, even during Jesus time, then how could the Comforter be the Holy Spirit? Remember, Jesus said that He needed to depart before the Comforter could come
Of course there would be people leaving Islam but its the nett that counts. Yes?
You keep on avoiding and running away from the points I raised.
- Sam Shamoun is not a scholar , as far as I know he is a school dropout. However you claim he is a scholar. Can you back up your claim?
- Why is that when muslims criticse the Bible and Christianity you keep on insisting references to scholars (BTW pastors are not scholars). However you are ok with your polemics against Islam and Quran with references to 'answering islam' and 'faith freedom'. Since when are these entities scholars?
- Why do you brush aside works by real scholars like Prof Bart Ehrman , Prof Geza Vermes , Prof Dale Tuggy (to name a few) that points out the errancy of the bible and the nature of Jesus (works which I reference to)?
Lets see how many posts do you need to answer the questions. Can you stop running and stand your ground to answer. Issit asking too much?
are you afraid to comment the video is it?? watch it and then you know the truth.
u and zakir naik consider like this:
Book of Mathew Chapter 7
“Be on your guard against false prophets; they come to you looking like sheep on the outside, but on the inside they are really like wild wolves. 16 You will know them by what they do. Thorn bushes do not bear grapes, and briers do not bear figs. 17 A healthy tree bears good fruit, but a poor tree bears bad fruit. 18 A healthy tree cannot bear bad fruit, and a poor tree cannot bear good fruit. 19 And any tree that does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown in the fire. 20 So then, you will know the false prophets by what they do.
“Be on your guard against false prophets; they come to you looking like sheep on the outside, but on the inside they are really like wild wolves. 16 You will know them by what they do. Thorn bushes do not bear grapes, and briers do not bear figs. 17 A healthy tree bears good fruit, but a poor tree bears bad fruit. 18 A healthy tree cannot bear bad fruit, and a poor tree cannot bear good fruit. 19 And any tree that does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown in the fire. 20 So then, you will know the false prophets by what they do.
LOL , commented on the video already , see my post#117. Looks like you are just too scared to respond to my comments. Pretend not to notice eh?
It is so easy to conduct a biblical test of who is the prophet and people of the right faith against those of false faith. It is 1joh4:2-3 (NIV Bible)
2 This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God,
3 but every spirit that does not acknowledge Jesus is not from God. This is the spirit of the antichrist, which you have heard is coming and even now is already in the world.
The key is Christ Jesus. Prophet Muhammad(saw) and us muslims attest that Prophet Eesa(as) (Jesus to you) was/is the Christ. However Christians like you attest that he was/is the Christ and God.
The bible in 1joh4:2 states of Christ only. You sudah tambah satu extra - God. If you ascribe to 1joh4:2-3 , Christians (you , yes tambi - you) are the antichrist. Aaaaah sudah ...... macamana ni? The bible in 1joh4:3 has condemned you being the antichrist .... ha ha
The claim that Muhammad is prophesied in the Bible is perhaps the most patent Islamic lie. However, Muslims have no choice. They have to believe in this lie because Muhammad claimed he is prophesied and hence Muslims must find that prophesy.
Some Muslims claim that the reason we don’t find any prophesy of Muhammad is because the Bible is corrupted.
Someone wrote to me asking if Muhammad is a false prophet how is it that he is mentioned in the Bible. I replied he isn’t and he sent me this link where Muslims quote several verses from the Old and New Testaments claiming that they refer to Muhammad. http://www.islam101.com/religions/christianity/mBible.htm
Although it is impossible to reply to all Muslims lies, because telling lies is easy for them and there is no limit to the amount of lies one can say I will reply to these.
Almighty God speaks to Moses in Book of Deuteronomy chapter 18 verse 18:
“I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and I will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.”
The Christians say that this prophecy refers to Jesus (pbuh) because Jesus (pbuh) was like Moses (pbuh). Moses (pbuh) was a Jew, as well as Jesus (pbuh) was a Jew. Moses (pbuh) was a Prophet and Jesus (pbuh) was also a Prophet.
If these two are the only criteria for this prophecy to be fulfilled, then all the Prophets of the Bible who came after Moses (pbuh) such as Solomon, Isaiah, Ezekiel, Daniel, Hosea, Joel, Malachi, John the Baptist, etc. (pbut) will fulfill this prophecy since all were Jews as well as prophets.
However, it is Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) who is like Moses (pbuh):
Both had a father and a mother, while Jesus (pbuh) was born miraculously without any male intervention. [Mathew 1:18 and Luke 1:35 and also Al-Qur’an 3:42-47]
Both were married and had children. Jesus (pbuh) according to the Bible did not marry nor had children.
Both died natural deaths. Jesus (pbuh) has been raised up alive. (4:157-158)
Muhammad (pbuh) is from among the brethren of Moses (pbuh). Arabs are brethren of Jews. Abraham (pbuh) had two sons: Ishmail and Isaac (pbut). The Arabs are the descendants of Ishmail (pbuh) and the Jews are the descendants of Isaac (pbuh).
Words in the mouth:
Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was unlettered and whatever revelations he received from Almighty God he repeated them verbatim.
“I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.”
[Deuteronomy 18:18]
Both besides being Prophets were also kings i.e. they could inflict capital punishment. Jesus (pbuh) said, “My kingdom is not of this world.” (John 18:36).
Both were accepted as Prophets by their people in their lifetime but Jesus (pbuh) was rejected by his
John chapter 1 verse 11 states, “He came unto his own, but his own received him not.”
Both brought new laws and new regulations for their people. Jesus (pbuh) according to the Bible did not bring any new laws. (Mathew 5:17-18).
Let us see what the correct wordings of the Deuteronomy 18:18 are:
17 The Lord said to me: “What they say is good. 18 I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their fellow Israelites, and I will put my words in his mouth. He will tell them everything I command him. https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Deuteronomy++18&version=NIV
“From among their brethren,” means from among their own people. i.e the Jews. Jews did not consider Arabs as their brethren. They called them gentiles (pagans) and they were seen as the enemies of Jewish people. http://www.gotquestions.org/what-is-a-Gentile.html
The law in USA is that every four years Americans go to the polls and elect a president from one of their own (brethren). Now Canadians and Americans are known as brothers. You can find that statement in ever border crossing between Canada and USA. Does this mean that Americans can elect a Canadian as their president? Do you see the absurdity of this claim? Arabs and Jews never saw each other as brothers. The Bible speaks disparagingly of Ismael the alleged progenitor of Arabs and calls him a jackass, who will have his hand against all the people.
2- It is Mentioned in the book of Deuteronomy chapter 18:19
“And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not harken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him.”
Let us read the verses 19 and 20.
19 I myself will call to account anyone who does not listen to my words that the prophet speaks in my name. 20 But a prophet who presumes to speak in my name anything I have not commanded, or a prophet who speaks in the name of other gods, is to be put to death.”
Allah is not the God of the Jews. This is demonstrated by my friend Sam Shameoun here http://www.answering-islam.org/Shamoun/god.htm
If Jews were faithful to the instruction of their God, they would have put Muhammad to death. But they disobeyed God and instead of killing the impostor when he arrived at Yathrib they tried to make peace with him. As the result of their disobedience to God they lost their lives, all of them were exterminated and humanity was plunged into mayhem and hundreds of millions of lives were lost. Ecclesiastes is a time to heal and a time to kill, a time for peace and a time for war. We must fight evil. That is the whole purpose of our lives. That is how we evolve spiritually.
3- Muhammad (pbuh) is prophesised in the book of Isaiah:
It is mentioned in the book of Isaiah chapter 29 verse 12:
“And the book is delivered to him that is not learned, saying, Read this, I pray thee: and he saith, I am not learned.”
When Archangel Gabrail commanded Muhammad (pbuh) by saying Iqra – “Read”, he replied, “I am not learned”.
Let us see what this verse talks about.
11 For you this whole vision is nothing but words sealed in a scroll. And if you give the scroll to someone who can read, and say, “Read this, please,” they will answer, “I can’t; it is sealed.” 12 Or if you give the scroll to someone who cannot read, and say, “Read this, please,” they will answer, “I don’t know how to read.”
13 The Lord says: “These people come near to me with their mouth
and honor me with their lips,
but their hearts are far from me.
Their worship of me
is based on merely human rules they have been taught.
This passage is talking about a misguided people who don’t understand the scriptures. They refuse to read it or claim not to be able to read it. They are hypocrites who claim to honor God with their lips but their hearts are far from God. So if Muslims think the verse is about Muhammad, I can’t argue with them. Muhammad does fit the bill.
Muslims so much hate reading the Bible that even when they want to prove Muhammad is prophesized, they don’t read the whole context to see the passage they quote actually makes their prophet a hypocrite and an enemy of God. What a pathetic folk!
4- prophet Muhammad (pbuh) mentioned by name in the old testament:
Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is mentioned by name in the Song of Solomon chapter 5 verse 16:
“Hikko Mamittakim we kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh wa Zehraee Bayna Jerusalem.”
“His mouth is most sweet: yea, he is altogether lovely. This is my beloved, and this is my friend, O daughters of Jerusalem.”
In the Hebrew language im is added for respect. Similarely im is added after the name of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) to make it Muhammadim. In English translation they have even translated the name of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) as “altogether lovely”, but in the Old Testament in Hebrew, the name of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is yet present.
Although all the claims Muslims made about Muhammad being mentioned in the Bible are ridiculous, this one takes the cake. I have shown the stupidity of such claim in this article. Please read it as it is really laughable. http://alisina.org/?p=277
Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) in the New Testament:
Al-Qur’an Chapter 61 Verse 6:
“And remember, Jesus, the son of Mary, said, ‘O Children of Israel! I am the messenger of Allah (sent) to you, confirming the Law (which came) before me and giving glad tidings of a messenger to come after me, whose name shall be Ahmed.’ But when he came to them with clear signs, they said, ‘This is evident sorcery!’ ”
All the prophecies mentioned in the Old Testament regarding Muhammad (pbuh) besides applying to the Jews also hold good for the Christians.
This is the claim Muhammad made. But Muslims have been unable to find any werse referring to Muhammad or Ahamad in the New Testament. So they present the following instead.
1- John chapter 14 verse 16:
“And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you forever.”
So Jesus asked God to give us a Comforter. Was Muhammad a comforter? He was a mass murderer. He bragged I have become victorious through terror. How can a terrorist be a comforter? All one needs is two once of rational thinking to see Muhammad was the opposite of what Jesus promised.
2- Gospel of John chapter 15 verse 26:
“But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me.”
How this apply to Muhammad who raided people at dawn, massacred unarmed men, raped their women and sold them as slaves? Did Muhammad testify of Jesus No! he even claimed that Jesus was never crucified and that someone resembling him was crucified in his place and that God deceived the people.
3- Gospel of John chapter 16 verse 7:
“Nevertheless I tell you the truth; it is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you”.
“Ahmed” or “Muhammad” meaning “the one who praises” or “the praised one” is almost the translation of the Greek word Periclytos. In the Gospel of John 14:16, 15:26, and 16:7. The word ‘Comforter’ is used in the English translation for the Greek word Paracletos which means advocate or a kind friend rather than a comforter. Paracletos is the warped reading for Periclytos. Jesus (pbuh) actually prophesised Ahmed by name. Even the Greek word Paraclete refers to the Prophet (pbuh) who is a mercy for all creatures.
Some Christians say that the Comforter mentioned in these prophecies refers to the Holy Sprit. They fail to realise that the prophecy clearly says that only if Jesus (pbuh) departs will the Comforter come. The Bible states that the
Holy Spirit was already present on earth before and during the time of Jesus (pbuh), in the womb of Elizabeth, and again when Jesus (pbuh) was being baptised, etc. Hence this prophecy refers to none other than Prophet Muhammad (pbuh).
Let us read the mentioned passages.
John 14: 15 “If you love me, keep my commands. 16 And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another advocate to help you and be with you forever— 17 the Spirit of truth. The world cannot accept him, because it neither sees him nor knows him. But you know him, for he lives with you and will be in you. 18 I will not leave you as orphans; I will come to you. 19 Before long, the world will not see me anymore, but you will see me. Because I live, you also will live. 20 On that day you will realize that I am in my Father, and you are in me, and I am in you. 21 Whoever has my commands and keeps them is the one who loves me. The one who loves me will be loved by my Father, and I too will love them and show myself to them.”
First, Jesus said keep my command. Did Muhammad do that? Jesus said if you preach and are rejected dust your sandals before leaving. He wanted to emphasize to not take anything from those people even as gift. Muhammad raided and stole the entire wealth of countless towns. Jesus said, let he who has not committed sin throw the first stone. Muhammad ordered stoning. Jesus said my Kingdom is not of this world. He wanted to stress on the futility of the wealth of this world. Muhammad said, I have been promised the wealth of this world. Everything Muhammad did and said is opposite to what Jesus did and said.
The advocate that Jesus promised was to stay with us forever. This means he could not be a person in flesh. Muhammad died so he did not stay as he wished. The Holy Spirit was with Jesus while he was among us. For him to come back as Comforter Jesus had to return to his celestial Kingdom. Jesus said he lives with you and will be in you. So clearly he was not talking about a person with a physical body.
All one needs to see these claims are bogus is to read the verses, something Muslims never do.
John 15: 26 and 16:7 repeat the same things discussed above.
4- Gospel of John chapter 16 verse 12-14:
“I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth is come, he will guide you unto all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. He shall glorify me”.
The Sprit of Truth, spoken about in this prophecy referes to none other than Prophet Muhammad (pbuh)
That is an unproven and unfounded claim. Muhammad was no Spirit of Truth. He was a liar, an impostor. All the claims of Muslims are bogus. However, Jesus warned us that many false prophets will come who will claim to be from him and will seduce people.
115 “Watch out for false prophets. They come to you in sheep’s clothing, but inwardly they are ferocious wolves. 16 By their fruit you will recognize them.
Rea more here whether is Muhammad or Paul : http://alisina.org/?p=4812
Book of Mathew Chapter 7
“Be on your guard against false prophets; they come to you looking like sheep on the outside, but on the inside they are really like wild wolves. 16 You will know them by what they do. Thorn bushes do not bear grapes, and briers do not bear figs. 17 A healthy tree bears good fruit, but a poor tree bears bad fruit. 18 A healthy tree cannot bear bad fruit, and a poor tree cannot bear good fruit. 19 And any tree that does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown in the fire. 20 So then, you will know the false prophets by what they do.
Truth.8 replied at 23-5-2016 10:58 AM
The claim that Muhammad is prophesied in the Bible is perhaps the most patent Islamic lie. However, Muslims have no choice. They have to believe in this lie because Muhammad claimed he is prophesied and hence Muslims must find that prophesy.
Some Muslims claim that the reason we don’t find any prophesy of Muhammad is because the Bible is corrupted.
Someone wrote to me asking if Muhammad is a false prophet how is it that he is mentioned in the Bible. I replied he isn’t and he sent me this link where Muslims quote several verses from the Old and New Testaments claiming that they refer to Muhammad. http://www.islam101.com/religions/christianity/mBible.htm
Although it is impossible to reply to all Muslims lies, because telling lies is easy for them and there is no limit to the amount of lies one can say I will reply to these.
Almighty God speaks to Moses in Book of Deuteronomy chapter 18 verse 18:
“I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and I will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.”
The Christians say that this prophecy refers to Jesus (pbuh) because Jesus (pbuh) was like Moses (pbuh). Moses (pbuh) was a Jew, as well as Jesus (pbuh) was a Jew. Moses (pbuh) was a Prophet and Jesus (pbuh) was also a Prophet.
If these two are the only criteria for this prophecy to be fulfilled, then all the Prophets of the Bible who came after Moses (pbuh) such as Solomon, Isaiah, Ezekiel, Daniel, Hosea, Joel, Malachi, John the Baptist, etc. (pbut) will fulfill this prophecy since all were Jews as well as prophets.
However, it is Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) who is like Moses (pbuh):
Both had a father and a mother, while Jesus (pbuh) was born miraculously without any male intervention. [Mathew 1:18 and Luke 1:35 and also Al-Qur’an 3:42-47]
Both were married and had children. Jesus (pbuh) according to the Bible did not marry nor had children.
Both died natural deaths. Jesus (pbuh) has been raised up alive. (4:157-158)
Muhammad (pbuh) is from among the brethren of Moses (pbuh). Arabs are brethren of Jews. Abraham (pbuh) had two sons: Ishmail and Isaac (pbut). The Arabs are the descendants of Ishmail (pbuh) and the Jews are the descendants of Isaac (pbuh).
Words in the mouth:
Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was unlettered and whatever revelations he received from Almighty God he repeated them verbatim.
“I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.”
[Deuteronomy 18:18]
Both besides being Prophets were also kings i.e. they could inflict capital punishment. Jesus (pbuh) said, “My kingdom is not of this world.” (John 18:36).
Both were accepted as Prophets by their people in their lifetime but Jesus (pbuh) was rejected by his
John chapter 1 verse 11 states, “He came unto his own, but his own received him not.”
Both brought new laws and new regulations for their people. Jesus (pbuh) according to the Bible did not bring any new laws. (Mathew 5:17-18).
Let us see what the correct wordings of the Deuteronomy 18:18 are:
17 The Lord said to me: “What they say is good. 18 I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their fellow Israelites, and I will put my words in his mouth. He will tell them everything I command him. https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Deuteronomy++18&version=NIV
“From among their brethren,” means from among their own people. i.e the Jews. Jews did not consider Arabs as their brethren. They called them gentiles (pagans) and they were seen as the enemies of Jewish people. http://www.gotquestions.org/what-is-a-Gentile.html
The law in USA is that every four years Americans go to the polls and elect a president from one of their own (brethren). Now Canadians and Americans are known as brothers. You can find that statement in ever border crossing between Canada and USA. Does this mean that Americans can elect a Canadian as their president? Do you see the absurdity of this claim? Arabs and Jews never saw each other as brothers. The Bible speaks disparagingly of Ismael the alleged progenitor of Arabs and calls him a jackass, who will have his hand against all the people.
2- It is Mentioned in the book of Deuteronomy chapter 18:19
“And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not harken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him.”
Let us read the verses 19 and 20.
19 I myself will call to account anyone who does not listen to my words that the prophet speaks in my name. 20 But a prophet who presumes to speak in my name anything I have not commanded, or a prophet who speaks in the name of other gods, is to be put to death.”
Allah is not the God of the Jews. This is demonstrated by my friend Sam Shameoun here http://www.answering-islam.org/Shamoun/god.htm
If Jews were faithful to the instruction of their God, they would have put Muhammad to death. But they disobeyed God and instead of killing the impostor when he arrived at Yathrib they tried to make peace with him. As the result of their disobedience to God they lost their lives, all of them were exterminated and humanity was plunged into mayhem and hundreds of millions of lives were lost. Ecclesiastes is a time to heal and a time to kill, a time for peace and a time for war. We must fight evil. That is the whole purpose of our lives. That is how we evolve spiritually.
3- Muhammad (pbuh) is prophesised in the book of Isaiah:
It is mentioned in the book of Isaiah chapter 29 verse 12:
“And the book is delivered to him that is not learned, saying, Read this, I pray thee: and he saith, I am not learned.”
When Archangel Gabrail commanded Muhammad (pbuh) by saying Iqra – “Read”, he replied, “I am not learned”.
Let us see what this verse talks about.
11 For you this whole vision is nothing but words sealed in a scroll. And if you give the scroll to someone who can read, and say, “Read this, please,” they will answer, “I can’t; it is sealed.” 12 Or if you give the scroll to someone who cannot read, and say, “Read this, please,” they will answer, “I don’t know how to read.”
13 The Lord says: “These people come near to me with their mouth
and honor me with their lips,
but their hearts are far from me.
Their worship of me
is based on merely human rules they have been taught.
This passage is talking about a misguided people who don’t understand the scriptures. They refuse to read it or claim not to be able to read it. They are hypocrites who claim to honor God with their lips but their hearts are far from God. So if Muslims think the verse is about Muhammad, I can’t argue with them. Muhammad does fit the bill.
Muslims so much hate reading the Bible that even when they want to prove Muhammad is prophesized, they don’t read the whole context to see the passage they quote actually makes their prophet a hypocrite and an enemy of God. What a pathetic folk!
4- prophet Muhammad (pbuh) mentioned by name in the old testament:
Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is mentioned by name in the Song of Solomon chapter 5 verse 16:
“Hikko Mamittakim we kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh wa Zehraee Bayna Jerusalem.”
“His mouth is most sweet: yea, he is altogether lovely. This is my beloved, and this is my friend, O daughters of Jerusalem.”
In the Hebrew language im is added for respect. Similarely im is added after the name of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) to make it Muhammadim. In English translation they have even translated the name of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) as “altogether lovely”, but in the Old Testament in Hebrew, the name of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is yet present.
Although all the claims Muslims made about Muhammad being mentioned in the Bible are ridiculous, this one takes the cake. I have shown the stupidity of such claim in this article. Please read it as it is really laughable. http://alisina.org/?p=277
Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) in the New Testament:
Al-Qur’an Chapter 61 Verse 6:
“And remember, Jesus, the son of Mary, said, ‘O Children of Israel! I am the messenger of Allah (sent) to you, confirming the Law (which came) before me and giving glad tidings of a messenger to come after me, whose name shall be Ahmed.’ But when he came to them with clear signs, they said, ‘This is evident sorcery!’ ”
All the prophecies mentioned in the Old Testament regarding Muhammad (pbuh) besides applying to the Jews also hold good for the Christians.
This is the claim Muhammad made. But Muslims have been unable to find any werse referring to Muhammad or Ahamad in the New Testament. So they present the following instead.
1- John chapter 14 verse 16:
“And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you forever.”
So Jesus asked God to give us a Comforter. Was Muhammad a comforter? He was a mass murderer. He bragged I have become victorious through terror. How can a terrorist be a comforter? All one needs is two once of rational thinking to see Muhammad was the opposite of what Jesus promised.
2- Gospel of John chapter 15 verse 26:
“But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me.”
How this apply to Muhammad who raided people at dawn, massacred unarmed men, raped their women and sold them as slaves? Did Muhammad testify of Jesus No! he even claimed that Jesus was never crucified and that someone resembling him was crucified in his place and that God deceived the people.
3- Gospel of John chapter 16 verse 7:
“Nevertheless I tell you the truth; it is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you”.
“Ahmed” or “Muhammad” meaning “the one who praises” or “the praised one” is almost the translation of the Greek word Periclytos. In the Gospel of John 14:16, 15:26, and 16:7. The word ‘Comforter’ is used in the English translation for the Greek word Paracletos which means advocate or a kind friend rather than a comforter. Paracletos is the warped reading for Periclytos. Jesus (pbuh) actually prophesised Ahmed by name. Even the Greek word Paraclete refers to the Prophet (pbuh) who is a mercy for all creatures.
Some Christians say that the Comforter mentioned in these prophecies refers to the Holy Sprit. They fail to realise that the prophecy clearly says that only if Jesus (pbuh) departs will the Comforter come. The Bible states that the
Holy Spirit was already present on earth before and during the time of Jesus (pbuh), in the womb of Elizabeth, and again when Jesus (pbuh) was being baptised, etc. Hence this prophecy refers to none other than Prophet Muhammad (pbuh).
Let us read the mentioned passages.
John 14: 15 “If you love me, keep my commands. 16 And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another advocate to help you and be with you forever— 17 the Spirit of truth. The world cannot accept him, because it neither sees him nor knows him. But you know him, for he lives with you and will be in you. 18 I will not leave you as orphans; I will come to you. 19 Before long, the world will not see me anymore, but you will see me. Because I live, you also will live. 20 On that day you will realize that I am in my Father, and you are in me, and I am in you. 21 Whoever has my commands and keeps them is the one who loves me. The one who loves me will be loved by my Father, and I too will love them and show myself to them.”
First, Jesus said keep my command. Did Muhammad do that? Jesus said if you preach and are rejected dust your sandals before leaving. He wanted to emphasize to not take anything from those people even as gift. Muhammad raided and stole the entire wealth of countless towns. Jesus said, let he who has not committed sin throw the first stone. Muhammad ordered stoning. Jesus said my Kingdom is not of this world. He wanted to stress on the futility of the wealth of this world. Muhammad said, I have been promised the wealth of this world. Everything Muhammad did and said is opposite to what Jesus did and said.
The advocate that Jesus promised was to stay with us forever. This means he could not be a person in flesh. Muhammad died so he did not stay as he wished. The Holy Spirit was with Jesus while he was among us. For him to come back as Comforter Jesus had to return to his celestial Kingdom. Jesus said he lives with you and will be in you. So clearly he was not talking about a person with a physical body.
All one needs to see these claims are bogus is to read the verses, something Muslims never do.
John 15: 26 and 16:7 repeat the same things discussed above.
4- Gospel of John chapter 16 verse 12-14:
“I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth is come, he will guide you unto all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. He shall glorify me”.
The Sprit of Truth, spoken about in this prophecy referes to none other than Prophet Muhammad (pbuh)
That is an unproven and unfounded claim. Muhammad was no Spirit of Truth. He was a liar, an impostor. All the claims of Muslims are bogus. However, Jesus warned us that many false prophets will come who will claim to be from him and will seduce people.
115 “Watch out for false prophets. They come to you in sheep’s clothing, but inwardly they are ferocious wolves. 16 By their fruit you will recognize them.
Rea more here whether is Muhammad or Paul : http://alisina.org/?p=4812
Book of Mathew Chapter 7
“Be on your guard against false prophets; they come to you looking like sheep on the outside, but on the inside they are really like wild wolves. 16 You will know them by what they do. Thorn bushes do not bear grapes, and briers do not bear figs. 17 A healthy tree bears good fruit, but a poor tree bears bad fruit. 18 A healthy tree cannot bear bad fruit, and a poor tree cannot bear good fruit. 19 And any tree that does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown in the fire. 20 So then, you will know the false prophets by what they do.
LOL , what a long copy paste in which you do not understand anyways. However the following caught my eye :
Almighty God speaks to Moses in Book of Deuteronomy chapter 18 verse 18:
“I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and I will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.”
The Christians say that this prophecy refers to Jesus (pbuh) because Jesus (pbuh) was like Moses (pbuh). Moses (pbuh) was a Jew, as well as Jesus (pbuh) was a Jew. Moses (pbuh) was a Prophet and Jesus (pbuh) was also a Prophet.
If these two are the only criteria for this prophecy to be fulfilled, then all the Prophets of the Bible who came after Moses (pbuh) such as Solomon, Isaiah, Ezekiel, Daniel, Hosea, Joel, Malachi, John the Baptist, etc. (pbut) will fulfill this prophecy since all were Jews as well as prophets.
However, it is Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) who is like Moses (pbuh):
1. Both had a father and a mother, while Jesus (pbuh) was born miraculously without any male intervention. [Mathew 1:18 and Luke 1:35 and also Al-Qur’an 3:42-47]
2. Both were married and had children. Jesus (pbuh) according to the Bible did not marry nor had children.
3. Both died natural deaths. Jesus (pbuh) has been raised up alive. (4:157-158)
The condition here is that the said prophet is like Moses meaning the person has similarities as to Moses.
Therefore how can the person be Jesus as Jesus does not fulfill the 3 criterias?
This is funny. Lets look at deut18:18 (King James version - your favourite)
I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.
There is no mention that the prophet has to be from the Israelite line. Just from their own people.
In Songs Of Solomon 5:16 , 'Muhammadim' is a name. You do not translate names lah .... apa lah lu.
Have you done the biblical test of 1joh4:2?
Ha ha , you sudah kena kencing dgn Ali Sina lah .... an atheist dah kencing a Christian like you
There is no mention that the prophet has to be from the Israelite line. Just from their own people.
In Songs Of Solomon 5:16 , 'Muhammadim' is a name. You do not translate names lah .... apa lah lu.
Have you done the biblical test of 1joh4:2?
Ha ha , you sudah kena kencing dgn Ali Sina lah .... an atheist dah kencing a Christian like you
You just repeat like parrot: Muhammad mentioned by name in the Song of Solomon 5:16?
[Professor Lewis was asked to reply to this claim in a popular Muslim propaganda video (available, e.g., here) and gave permission to quote his informal email response on our website.]
Dear Eman,
The Muslim attempt to find "Muhammad" by name in the Song of Solomon 5:16 is a prime example of eisegesis, of reading something entirely out of context into a verse of the Bible.
The Song of Solomon contains beautiful and sensuous poetry expressing romantic love between a young man (a shepherd 1:7) and.a young woman (a shepherdess 1:8). A key theme is that marriage is a gift from God to be founded on commitment and loyalty.
The young lady is describing her husband's body in 5:10-16. Is it likely that while enamored of her husband, she would suddenly speak of another man in verse 16?
Even if some Jewish pronunciations of one of the Hebrew words sounded something like "Muhammed," that is irrelevant because it is not the sound, but the meaning of the word that is significant.
In that romantic context, the meaning is certainly not about a totally unknown man at the time the Song of Solomon was written (about 960 BC). Muhammad was born hundreds of years later (AD 570-632)! He was a man of whom the shepherdess could have had no knowledge whatsoever. And if she did, she would not have mentioned it while making love to another.
Muslims who allege that the Song mentions Muhammad would not want us to introduce into their writings something entirely foreign and then base major teaching of the Trinity upon that literary distortion. If they would not want Jews or Christians to do that with Muslim writings, they ought not do that to the Song of Solomon.
If Muslims need this type of fallacious argument, there must be serious concerns about whether Muhammad is a prophet, ...
How much better for them to trust Jesus of Nazareth who fulfilled the roles of the final prophet, the one and only priest offering himself as the sacrifice for our sins and the king and Lord of all as he triumphed over sin, death and Satan and ascended to heaven where he was given all authority in heaven and earth (Matthew 28:18-20). See the many lines of evidence to support his claims, listed in Matthew 11:2-14; 1 Corinthians 15:1-7; Hebrews 2:1-4. Then read John 20:30-31.
May you be led by the Spirit of truth,
Dr. Gordon Lewis
Senior Professor of Philosophy and Theology
Denver Seminary
Zakir Naik Proves That Allah Is a Mouse! (Song of Solomon 5:16)
You just repeat like parrot: Muhammad mentioned by name in the Song of Solomon 5:16?
[Professor Lewis was asked to reply to this claim in a popular Muslim propaganda video (available, e.g., here) and gave permission to quote his informal email response on our website.]
Dear Eman,
The Muslim attempt to find "Muhammad" by name in the Song of Solomon 5:16 is a prime example of eisegesis, of reading something entirely out of context into a verse of the Bible.
The Song of Solomon contains beautiful and sensuous poetry expressing romantic love between a young man (a shepherd 1:7) and.a young woman (a shepherdess 1:8). A key theme is that marriage is a gift from God to be founded on commitment and loyalty.
The young lady is describing her husband's body in 5:10-16. Is it likely that while enamored of her husband, she would suddenly speak of another man in verse 16?
Even if some Jewish pronunciations of one of the Hebrew words sounded something like "Muhammed," that is irrelevant because it is not the sound, but the meaning of the word that is significant.
In that romantic context, the meaning is certainly not about a totally unknown man at the time the Song of Solomon was written (about 960 BC). Muhammad was born hundreds of years later (AD 570-632)! He was a man of whom the shepherdess could have had no knowledge whatsoever. And if she did, she would not have mentioned it while making love to another.
Muslims who allege that the Song mentions Muhammad would not want us to introduce into their writings something entirely foreign and then base major teaching of the Trinity upon that literary distortion. If they would not want Jews or Christians to do that with Muslim writings, they ought not do that to the Song of Solomon.
If Muslims need this type of fallacious argument, there must be serious concerns about whether Muhammad is a prophet, ...
How much better for them to trust Jesus of Nazareth who fulfilled the roles of the final prophet, the one and only priest offering himself as the sacrifice for our sins and the king and Lord of all as he triumphed over sin, death and Satan and ascended to heaven where he was given all authority in heaven and earth (Matthew 28:18-20). See the many lines of evidence to support his claims, listed in Matthew 11:2-14; 1 Corinthians 15:1-7; Hebrews 2:1-4. Then read John 20:30-31.
May you be led by the Spirit of truth,
Dr. Gordon Lewis
Senior Professor of Philosophy and Theology
Denver Seminary
Ha ha , what you have given me are just videos and responses by Christians Apologists who are reading their bias into the texts. By the way , none of them speak Hebrew.
First of all, the way this word is written is Hebrew is mhmd. That happens to be the EXACT same was Muhammad's name is written in Hebrew. Let's look at the spelling of this word...
It has four characters. Going from right to left they are...
Now, when writing in Hebrew, there is no difference between the word mahmad () and Muhammad (). The only difference is in the vowels used when pronouncing this word (). Hebrew is an ancient language, and there are no vowels. It is made up of 22 consonants. In ancient times, the reader decided on his own which vowels to add in. It was not until the 8th century that vowels were introduced, in the form of dots and lines. However, this has nothing to do with real Hebrew. The word mahmad () in ancient times would most likely have been pronounced "mahamad".
According to Ben Yehuda's Hebrew-English Dictionary, is correctly pronounced "mahamad" (not mahmad) which is very close to Muhammad.
Ben Yehuda's Hebrew-English Dictionary defines "" as "lovely, coveted one, precious one, praised one". The correct way to say "praised one" in Arabic is Muhammad, so this is the same word!
As was stated before, the name Muhammad () and the word mahmad () are spelled exactly the same way in Hebrew, and both have the same meaning. The only reason they are pronounced different is because of vowels (dots and lines) introduced in the eigth century.
The Hebrew word for praised one is
The Hebrew word for Muhammad (the Arabic Prophet) is
In conclusion, if Songs of Solomon chapter 5 is discussing a man to come after that time, it is without a doubt Muhammad, as it even mentions his name. Any Christian who believes Jesus is the Messiah, and believes that books were sent down by God after the TaNaKh (Jewish Bible), then surely they should take into account what they just read here, and consider the Qur'an before making a decision.
Muhammad in arabic is محمد . If you can read it , you would notice the resemblence between the Hebrew and Arabic spellings
The problem that you have is that Hebrew & Arabic (expecially the classical) are sister languages. Therefore we don't need christian apologists who cannot even speak hebrew nor arabic to teach muslims what it is in this case. LOL , the christian apologists can only read the OT in english ..... too bad
BTW , you are again trying to digress from the issue of the comforter.
How is it you claim the comforter to be the Holy Spirit and the last few posts , Jesus Christ? Both failed the test of 1joh4:2. In fact you also failed the test of 1joh4:2 because you claim Jesus to be God.
hahahhaha again and again muslims twiste like ... using taqiya to promote muhammad.
you really sick in your mind and soul...one moment says Bible is porno and corrupt next says muhammad in Bible....how lies has been created by you muslims...very shameful indeed...
accept the fact the muhammad not prophet as in Bible
Truth.8 replied at 24-5-2016 09:45 AM
hahahhaha again and again muslims twiste like ... using taqiya to promote muhammad.
you really sick in your mind and soul...one moment says Bible is porno and corrupt next says muhammad in Bible....how lies has been created by you muslims...very shameful indeed...
accept the fact the muhammad not prophet as in Bible
here is video for you:
Ha ha , you have been cornered , haven't you? Next time do not appeal to Christian apologists who do not speak a word of Hebrew when referring to the OT.
I say again , the position of muslims is that the bible has been corrupted. Yes , it contains graphic sexual description. Too bad for , you have again been flipped with regards to the bible when it predicts the coming of Prophet Muhammad(saw)
Err .... what is the meaning of takkiya? Is it like rom3:7
Someone might argue, “If my falsehood enhances God’s truthfulness and so increases his glory, why am I still condemned as a sinner?”
I am sure takkiya is not like rom3:7 , lying for the so called glory of God
Ha ha , you have been cornered , haven't you? Next time do not appeal to Christian apologists who do not speak a word of Hebrew when referring to the OT.
I say again , the position of muslims is that the bible has been corrupted. Yes , it contains graphic sexual description. Too bad for , you have again been flipped with regards to the bible when it predicts the coming of Prophet Muhammad(saw)
Me been cornered. it is muslims like you been fooled with z akir naik and the worst part , accusing Bible is corrupt and porno but you muslims want to defend Muhammad in Bible....a kind of mental issue ...
The Islamic religion teaches that Jesus Christ was a practicing Muslim. My question is: is this any less ridiculous than if Christians said Muhammad was a practicing Buddhist?
Muslim's claim that Isaiah 42 is a prophecy of Muhammad. Yet Isaiah 53 is one of the foremost prophecies of the crucifixion of Christ in the entire Old Testament. My question is: on what basis do you feel Isaiah 42 is uncorrupted which prophecies Muhammad, but Isaiah 53 is corrupted that prophesies the crucifixion of Christ?
My question is: If you feel the Bible is so corrupted, than why do you quote Deut 18:18 and John 16:13 as uncorrupted prophecies of Muhammad's comment in the sixth century AD.
Acts 19:23-41 mentions a religion that worshipped the great goddess Artemis and her meteorite which fell down from heaven. Taking note that this religion centered around a meteorite, my question is: is it possible that this is a pagan corruption of the Black Stone and meteorite that fell at the foot of Adam and that at the time of Christ the Black Stone was actually in Ephesus Asia minor?
Galatians 1:6-9 Apostle Paul says "I am amazed that you are so quickly deserting Christ for a different religion. But even if an angel from heaven, should preach to you a different religion, let him be accursed." My question is: Do you think it possible that this is a genuine text from God and he foresaw that both Muhammad and Joseph Smith would be taught a new religion by an angel?
Before the discovery of the dead sea scrolls in 1947 the earliest copy of the Old Testament was the Massoretic Text dated at 1000 AD. The dead sea scrolls are dated at 100 B.C. contain 19 copies of Isaiah, 25 copies of Deuteronomy and 30 copies of Psalms that are virtually identical to what we have in our Bible's today. My question is: since you believe the Old Testament was corrupted long before the dead sea scrolls were written in 100 B.C., will you at least admit that there has been no further corruption of the Old Testament since 100 B.C. right down to the present?
In Jude 3; 2 Peter 1:3; John 16:13 and 2 Tim 3:16 the Bible is called an all sufficient book with no need for anything else in regards to how we live our lives or worship God. You claim the same thing for the Qur'an. My question is: how can the Qur'an be all sufficient in our worship of Allah, if it does not even mention
-Pray for them to see the truth.
Muslims claim, that a proof the Koran was from God, is that it contains scientifically accurate information about Embryology before man discovered it for himself. However, all the information in the Koran regarding Embryology is copied from three sources, 1. A Greek doctor named Galen, who lived of 150 AD. 2. A Jewish doctor named Samuel ha-Yehudi who lived 150 AD. 3. the Greek father of medicine Hippocrates who lived 400 BC. My question is: in light of the fact that all the information contained in the Koran was already in print by these three doctors, will you retract the argument on Embryology? If not, will you supply one detail revealed in the Koran about Embryology, that was not already revealed or that was new?
Muslims claim, that a proof that the Koran was from God is that it contains scientifically accurate information about Embryology, yet in 86:6-7 the Koran says, "man was created from ejected liquid- Proceeding from between the backbone and the ribs". This echoes the scientific error of Hippocrates who believed semen originates, from the brain down the spinal chord, before passing through the kidneys and finally out of the body. (Hippocratic Writings, Penguin Classics, 1983, p. 317) My question is: do you reject modern science and believe the Koran when it says sperm originates from the mid-gut section of a man's body.
Muslims quote an article written in 1957 by the Jehovah's Witnesses who stated there were 50,000 errors in the translation of the King James version. My question is: Even if this were true, (which of course it is not), how does this prove there is corruption in the original Greek MSS from which the King James version was translated?
Muslims claim, that the many different translations of the English Bible will render a single text with many different words and phrases. You said this was proof the Bible is corrupted and that the Koran reads exactly the same way everywhere in the world in Arabic. My question is: Since the many English translations of the Koran also render a single text with many different words, does that proof that the Koran is corrupted?
Muslims believe the word Allah was used by Jesus when he hung on the cross. The Bible records that Jesus said "Eli Eli lama sabachthani", but you say Jesus really cried out to Allah and said "Allah, Allah lama sabachthani" My question is: Would you please explain why you would use this argument when you don't believe Jesus ever hung on the cross? And second, since Jesus was quoting Ps 22:1 on the cross, isn't rather unlikely that both the Hebrew Old Testament and the Greek New Testament are wrong using Eli, a Hebrew word, rather than Allah, an arab word?
Muslims chide Christians because the earliest complete copies of the Bible were written 300 years after the originals of the first century. Yet Muslim scholars state the earliest copy of the Koran was written no earlier than 150 years after Muhammad died. My question is: in light of this fact, how could the Koran possibly be better than the Bible and would you please state the name and location and date of the earliest Koran you believe to be in existence?
Both the Samarqand MSS is in Tashkent, and the MSS housed in the Topkapi Museum in Istanbul are written in the script style called "Kufic". And not the earlier style known as Ma'il or Mashq. This fact is the reason Muslim scholars date these manuscripts no earlier than 200 years after Muhammad died. My question is: leaving aside blind faith and wishful thinking, what evidence do you supply that these MSS were written any earlier?
The British Museum in London has an ancient copy of the Koran written in the Ma'il style of script, but practicing Muslim scholar Martin Lings, who is the former curator for the manuscripts of the British Museum, dates this manuscript at 790 AD. My question is: Apart from just making the claim, what evidence do you supply that this MSS were written any earlier?
The text of the Koran in 37:103 reads "they had both submitted their wills (became Muslims)" while the Arabic text of the Tashkent MSS gives the exact opposite meaning, "they did not submitted their wills" (they did NOT become Muslims.) My question is: have you actually read the Tashkent MSS for yourself in this passage and how do you explain this textual variation given your comments on the miracle of the perfect Koran?
Qur'an 18:9, makes into real history, the second century myth of 7 Christian youths who were persecuted for their faith and went to sleep in a cave for 300 years and then woke up with no ill effects. In the original myth the hero is a Christian, but in the Koran the hero is a Muslim. My question is: in the absence of any copyright laws when the Koran was written, are you at least prepared to pay compensation to the living relatives of the author of this myth? If not, would you be in favor of going starting up a charity fund to compensate for damages of copyright infringement?
Koran 5:116, represents Christians as worshipping Mary which is a historical error. Given the fact that the pagan Arabs did worship Mary's idol in the Kaba, and that history records no group of Christians had ever worshiped Mary at this time, my question is would you please name the sect of Christians who worshiped Mary at the time of Muhammad?
Muslim's reject the doctrine of inherited sin of Adam but teach the Immaculate Conception of Mary. The reason the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception was invented was to remove inherited sin. My question is: since you reject the doctrine of inherited sin and believe all men are born without sin, why do Muslim's teach the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of Mary?
In Koran 7:125, death by crucifixion is stated to exist at the time of Moses in 1500BC. Yet Encyclopedia Britannica, in harmony with all records of history, reports that crucifixion did not exist any earlier than 500 BC. My question is: to how do you explain this blaring historical error, and do you just disregard the history of the world merely because the Karen says otherwise?
Muslim scholar, Tabbarah, said in his book, The Spirit of Islam, "Moslems do not worship the Black Stone, but only show special reverence and veneration for its dignity and they kiss it only after the example of the Prophet and to keep their Covenant with God to obey His Will and avoid His disobedience." (Tabbarah, The Spirit of Islam, p. 173, Muslim). Focusing on Tabbarah's key phrase of showing reverence and veneration to the Black Stone, My question is do you see any difference between the Muslim practice of kissing showing reverence and venerating the Black Stone and the Catholic practice of pope John Paul II kissing the statute of the Virgin Mary with reverence and veneration?
Informed Christians know there is no passage and the Koran that says the Bible is lost altered or corrupted. My question is would you please list all the passages you know where the Qur'an says the Bible that was in the hands of the Christians at the time of Muhammad had been corrupted?
Muslims will quote Quran 2:79 as a verse where the Koran says the canon of the Bible is corrupted, "Then woe to those who write the Book with their own hands, and then say: "This is from God," to traffic with it for miserable price!" My question is: If this verse refers to the corruption of the Bible, then why did Muhammad command Christians to follow the Bible they possessed in 600 AD in Quran 2:89; 7:157? And is this the only verse in the Koran that says the Bible is corrupt? (see also Quran 2:40-42,126,136,285; 3:3,71,93; 4:47,136; 5:47-51, 69,71-72; 6:91; 10:37,94; 21:7; 29:45,46; 35:31; 46:11)
Muslims will quote Jer 8:8 as proof that the Old Testament canon is corrupt, "How can you say, 'We are wise, And the law of the Lord is with us'? But behold, the lying pen of the scribes Has made it into a lie" Yet this verse is clearly speaking of the written scribal interpretations of the Bible as Jesus condemned in Mt 15:1-14. Here Jesus accused the Scribes of the same thing regarding washing of hands and Corban, "you invalidate the written word of God for the sake of your tradition." My question is: is this the only text in the Bible where you claim the canon was corrupted? If not quote the other texts.
How can Muslims claim there are no textual variations in the Koran, when the Tashkent MSS differs from the modern Egyptian Qur'an in 5 passages: 2:284, 2:283, 3:37, 3:109 and 5:119. The Tashkent MSS uses the word 'Allah' while the modern Egyptian Qur'an, uses the word 'huwa' (the pronoun 'he'). My question is: Which word do you believe are in the "preserved master tablet" and "mother of all books" in heaven?
The yearly Passover ritual began the same year it was initiated in the 10th plague and continued uninterrupted for 1500 years. The weekly Lord's supper ritual began the same week that Christ was crucified and has continued ever since for 2000 years. The Islamic rituals just come out of nowhere, 2600 years after Abraham lived. Being as unbiased as you possibly can, My question is: are not the Jewish and Christian rituals more likely to be based on real history since the rituals of Islam that just pop out of nowhere 2600 years later?
The "Throw" is a reenactment ritual based upon Abraham and the "Run" is a reenactment ritual based upon Hagar. My question is: Did Adam perform the throw and the Run, and if not exactly when did they become part of Islamic ritual and do you have any actual historical evidence to support such?
Given the fact that Isaac Watt, said in his book, Islam and Christianity Today, "By the standards of modern historiography, the crucifixion of Jesus is one of the most certain events in past history" (Watt, Islam and Christianity Today, p. 144). My question is: What historical evidence do you give outside of the Qur'an that Jesus did not die on across?
If all Muslim's must reject the crucifixion of Christ based on the Koran and all Christians must reject Muhammad as a prophet based on the Bible, my question is: on exactly what basis do you believe Christianity and Islam are compatible religions?
Given the fact that the gospel of Barnabas is the 15th century forgery by Muslims, my question is: why do you quote this document as proof that early Christians denied the crucifixion of Christ and what proof do you offer that it is not a Muslim forgery?
Muslim's will quote Yusuf Ali's comment in footnote 663, as proof that the three early Christian sects of Marcion, Docetism, Basilides, denied the crucifixion of Christ. Given the fact the three sects are condemned as false teachers, deceivers and the anti-Christ in six Bible passages (1 John 1:1,14; 2:22; 4:1-3; 5:6; 2 John 7) My question is: on what basis do you claim they are Christian sects and isn't it as much of a misrepresentation for you to quote these Gnostic sects as Christians who deny the crucifixion, as it would be a misrepresentation for Christians to quote the Baha'i faith as proof Muhammad was not the final Prophet? (The holy Qur'an, text, translation and commentary by Abdullah Yusuf Ali. 1872-1952, First published in 1938, 1973 ed., p. 230, footnote 663, commenting on 4:157)
The Koran says in 4:157, that God causes someone who looked like Jesus to die on the cross in his place, therefore tricking the apostles of Christ into thinking he was crucified. My question is: how can you escape the fact that the rise of Christianity to the largest religion in the world is ultimately the result of the divine action of Allah?
The deity of Jesus is affirmed four times in Hebrews chapter 1. Jesus Christ is called the son of God, worshiped by Angels, called God by the Father and stated to be the creator. Given the fact that you would say that this is a textual corruption of the original gospel message, my question is would you not agree that this corrupted text does indeed call Jesus God?
The Islamic religion teaches that Jesus Christ was a practicing Muslim. My question is: is this any less ridiculous than if Christians said Muhammad was a practicing Buddhist?
Muslim's claim that Isaiah 42 is a prophecy of Muhammad. Yet Isaiah 53 is one of the foremost prophecies of the crucifixion of Christ in the entire Old Testament. My question is: on what basis do you feel Isaiah 42 is uncorrupted which prophecies Muhammad, but Isaiah 53 is corrupted that prophesies the crucifixion of Christ?
My question is: If you feel the Bible is so corrupted, than why do you quote Deut 18:18 and John 16:13 as uncorrupted prophecies of Muhammad's comment in the sixth century AD.
Acts 19:23-41 mentions a religion that worshipped the great goddess Artemis and her meteorite which fell down from heaven. Taking note that this religion centered around a meteorite, my question is: is it possible that this is a pagan corruption of the Black Stone and meteorite that fell at the foot of Adam and that at the time of Christ the Black Stone was actually in Ephesus Asia minor?
Galatians 1:6-9 Apostle Paul says "I am amazed that you are so quickly deserting Christ for a different religion. But even if an angel from heaven, should preach to you a different religion, let him be accursed." My question is: Do you think it possible that this is a genuine text from God and he foresaw that both Muhammad and Joseph Smith would be taught a new religion by an angel?
Before the discovery of the dead sea scrolls in 1947 the earliest copy of the Old Testament was the Massoretic Text dated at 1000 AD. The dead sea scrolls are dated at 100 B.C. contain 19 copies of Isaiah, 25 copies of Deuteronomy and 30 copies of Psalms that are virtually identical to what we have in our Bible's today. My question is: since you believe the Old Testament was corrupted long before the dead sea scrolls were written in 100 B.C., will you at least admit that there has been no further corruption of the Old Testament since 100 B.C. right down to the present?
In Jude 3; 2 Peter 1:3; John 16:13 and 2 Tim 3:16 the Bible is called an all sufficient book with no need for anything else in regards to how we live our lives or worship God. You claim the same thing for the Qur'an. My question is: how can the Qur'an be all sufficient in our worship of Allah, if it does not even mention something as important as praying five times a day and does this not prove that the Koran without the Hadith is like a car without an engine?
The Huleatt Manuscript was written in 50 AD and is actually a prayer addressed to Jesus and calls Jesus "God". Therefore, Christians have in their possession archeological inscriptions within 20 years of Christ's resurrection that say he is God. My question is: Do you know of any archeological inscription dated within 100 years of Muhammad's death where he is called a prophet? If so, please name it.
The Bible contains over 60 distinct prophecies of Jesus Christ 1000 years before hand. My question is: what is the single most remarkable prophecy that Muhammad made that was fulfilled?
Muslim's believe the Bible is corrupted. Yet in Isa 40:22 and three other passages. (Prov 8:27; Amos 9:6 Job 26:10) it says the earth is round and not flat. Job 26:7 says the earth is free-floating in space: "he hangs the earth on nothing." Both these facts are scientifically accurate, and revealed in the Bible long before man discovered it for himself. My question is: Are these passages scientifically accurate corruption's?
Muslims proudly quote several passages in the Koran 30:48; 24:43, as scientifically accurate explanations of the hydrologic water cycle. My question is: given the fact the Bible had already fully documented the hydrologic water cycle 1600 before the Koran in Job 36:27-28, and 3 other passages (Eccl 11:3; Job 26:8; Eccl 1:6-7), doesn't this proof Muhammad merely copied the scientific facts of the hydrologic water cycle directly from the Bible? (Clouds hold water: Eccl 11:3; Job 26:8; Rivers recycle water: Eccl 1:6-7; Evapouration: Amos 9:6)
The 66 books of the Bible were written by 40 different men over a period of 1600 years with multiple threads of unified themes that span cover to cover. My question is: would you not agree that in contrast to the Bible, that the Qur'an is a jumble of disjointed material, without order, continuity or unity of any kind?
Muslims authorities refuse to release photographs of the ancient Topkapi manuscript in Istanbul, one of the three oldest Korans in existence. My question is: do you have any idea why Muslim authorities refuse to release documentary photographs of the Topkapi manuscript in Istanbul and what they are afraid for the world to see?
Muslims have repeatedly claimed that Muslim women have more rights in Islam then Western women do in Canada and the USA. The proof you supplied with the fact that Islam gave women the right to vote 1400 years ago but women in the West only got the right to vote 100 years ago. My question is: would you please name one country in the world today that is ruled by a Islamic "Shariah" law where women are permitted to vote?
Muslim's claim that their growth rate is 235 percent and 47 percent for Christianity. This statistic came from the Readers Digest Almanac and Yearbook 1983, and represents 235 percent increase over 50 years. A simple review of the readers Digest study shows that the growth rate of Islam vs. Christianity is directly linked to the birth rate in Third World countries where Islam dominates and not actual conversions to each religion. My question is: do you have any more recent statistics on an annualized basis?
Muslims claim that Jesus prayed using the Muslim prayer posture, along with all the prophets. Yet Jesus instructed his disciples to pray while standing up. (Mark 11:25), King David prayed while sitting in (2 Sam 7:18), and Paul instructed prayer in church with hands lifted up in the air. (1 Tim 2:8) My question is: If Jesus was a Muslim, why would he instruct his disciples to pray standing up? And when it says Jesus fell on his face and prayed, how do you know he was not fully prostrate?
Muslims claim that Muhammad always worshipped Allah in a 100% correct way, without the need for any restoral. My question is: If this is true, then why did Muhammad pray towards Jerusalem for the first 5 years of his prophethood, and later redirected his prays towards Mecca? And did Jesus pray towards Mecca 5 times a towards Jerusalem or Mecca?
The Bible defines a miracle as something that defies the laws of nature. Muslims claim the Koran is a miracle merely because it was allegedly transmitted perfectly without alteration and flaw till the second coming. Since the Harry Potter books will certainly be transmitted perfectly without alteration or flaw, and be around until the second coming, my question is: does this make the Harry Potter books a miracle like the Koran?
Muslims claim that in Isa 42:1 Muhammad fulfilled the expression "bring forth justice to the nations" indicating that the immoral pagan Arabs before Muhammad's time were reformed into a just moral society. My question is: Even though you believe the New Testament is corrupt, had the Immoral Pagan Arabs all become Christians and followed the moral standards revealed in the corrupted New Testament, would they not have also transformed into a just moral society? If no why not? And how is the moral standard in the Koran superior to the moral standard of the Bible?
Muslims claim that the Angel Gabriel is the Holy Spirit who came upon Mary and caused her to conceive based upon Luke 1:26:38. My question is: If this is true, then why did Gabriel say to Mary in verse 35, "the power of the Holy Spirit will come upon you" rather than "my power will come upon you"?
Muslims quote Luke 22:43 as proof that when Jesus cried out to God not to be crucified, that an angel came and saved him from crucifixion. However the next verses says that Jesus was arrested by the mob for crucifixion. My Question is: on what basis do you accept the first passage as uncorrupted scripture, but reject the next verse as corrupted scripture?
Muslims claim it was medically impossible for blood and water to come out of Jesus when his side was pierced with spear because all the blood in Jesus body would have been clotted. The universal opinion of forensic scientists say that blood takes days to clot. My question is: Is this another example of where you reject all known science simply because Islam says this?
Muslims quote liberal agnostic Bible trashes who claim that the four gospels were copied from a lost original gospel known as the "Q document". This is a mythological document invented by these skeptics who reject Christianity, because they simply cannot accept the Bible is a book inspired from God. My question is: are you aware that the "Q Document" is a purely theoretical document that has never been found and is a complete fabrication and invention of the mind? And what is the value of quoting those who reject Christianity and Islam equally?
Muslims claim that the heading at the beginning of the four gospels "Gospel according to John", for example indicated the words came from John alone and prove the Bible to be a book of human authorship? In fact, that this text, like chapter and verse numbers, was added much later and are not part of the Bible? My question is: where did you learn that this text was part of the Bible?
Muslims state that they believe that the Bible is a book filled with pornography, and quoted Gen 19:32 where Lot made his two daughters pregnant. My Question is: Do you feel that the Bible should be removed from every library in Canada? And are you comfortable with the fact that your prophet Muhammad married a six year old child, when he was 55 years old? Do you think this is a good story to tell children?
Muslims teach Muhammad was sinless. However the Koran specifically limits the number of wives a Muslim man can marry to 4. Yet Muhammad married at least 12 women. My question is: Is Muhammad above the very law he gave in the Koran and isn't the definition of sin violating the law of God?
Muslims quote George Bernard Shaw who said, "The Bible is the most dangerous book in the world, keep it lock and keyed." My question is: What value is there for you to quote an atheist like Shaw who also said: "There is not one single established religion that an intelligent, educated man can believe." (George Bernard Shaw quoted in "2000 Years of Disbelief, Famous People with the Courage to Doubt", by James A. Haught, Prometheus Books, 1996) Shaw also said: "The fact that a believer is happier than a skeptic is no more to the point than the fact that a drunken man is happier than a sober one. The happiness of credulity is a cheap and dangerous quality. (George Bernard Shaw, Androcles and the Lion, Preface, 1916)
To prove the Bible text is corrupted, Muslims quote a newspaper article in the "Daily News" of Durban South Africa, Tues. May 22, 1990, where you claimed the Church of Scotland had deleted the virgin birth from the Bible. The article actually said that the church of Scotland had merely deleted the teaching from their local church creed and statement of faith. My question is: Would you please explain how a church deleting the virgin birth from their church doctrine books, in any way proves the Bible is corrupted?
Muslims quote Isa 42 as a prophecy of Muhammad and say that Christians teach it is a prophecy of the Holy Spirit. (In fact Christians apply the text to Christ.) You also said that Isa 42 can only be fulfilled by Muhammad because Jesus is never called "my servant". My question is: why did Matthew quote Isa 42 and apply the whole text to Jesus in Matthew 12:18?
Muslims claim that the prophecy of the coming prophet in Deut 18:18 cannot be fulfilled by Jesus but could be fulfilled by Muhammad because the text says the prophet must arise from among their own brethren. Muslims say that if a Hebrew was intended, that the Bible would have said, "from among yourselves" rather than the expression "from among their own brethren". Hence Muslims claim the expression, "from among their own brethren" excludes all Hebrews and specifically Jesus. My question is: Since Deut 17:15 uses exactly the same expression, when it said, "you shall surely set a king over you whom the Lord your God chooses, one from among your own brethren" why did God appoint Saul and David as King and not an Ishmaelite? And in Deut 18:2 it says, "The Levites shall have no inheritance from among their brethren." Did the Ishmaelites share the inheritance of the promised land of Palestine with the Hebrews?
The Koran says in 4:157, that God causes someone who looked like Jesus to die on the cross in his place, therefore tricking the apostles of Christ into thinking he was crucified. Apostle John wrote in1 John 1:1 concerning the crucifixion: "What we have heard, what we have seen with our eyes, what we have looked at and touched with our hands, concerning the Word of Life". My question is: Was not John accurately reporting the things he actually saw, things that Allah made appear to happen?
Muslims claim that the New Testament story of Jesus dying on the cross is a corruption of the truth and that Allah made it appear that Jesus died on the cross, as per Q4:157. My question is: How can Muslims claim that they believe any of the New Testament was originally revealed by God, since the corruption must have begun at the cross.
Muslims believe that the whole concept of blood atonement is an invention of the Christian church. My question is: What were the Jews doing since 1500 BC on the "day of atonement".
Muslims reject the gospel story of Jesus being a substitute for our sins, the just for the unjust. They use the illustration of a man having to pay for a speeding ticket he did not commit. My question is: How do you explain that in the Muslim view of the cross, someone completely innocent died in Jesus place, after God made him appear to be Jesus? Was not this a Substitutionary sacrifice?
something as important as praying five times a day and does this not prove that the Koran without the Hadith is like a car without an engine?
Wow ... what a long copy paste which I doubt you even understand. I will respond point by point. However I think you would rather run away than engage with my response
(1) Isaiah 53 is about Israel not about Jesus. Where do you get the understanding that Isaiah 53 is about Jesus?
(2) There is no doubt that the bible is corrupted. However you believe that it is the inerrent word of your God. This places you in more problems about the bible. It does not affect muslims at all.
(3) Can you explain why you think muslims worship Hajr Aswad? Kissing is not worship. If you think kissing is worship then you are mental. The pope kiss and venerate Mary but in addition Mary is being worshiped being an intercessor for God.
(4) Does it matter of your argument
since you believe the Old Testament was corrupted long before the dead sea scrolls were written in 100 B.C., will you at least admit that there has been no further corruption of the Old Testament since 100 B.C. right down to the present?
Once corrupted , it stays corrupted. There is no 2 ways about it
(5) Can you now provide the embryology by Galen? Lets see if there are any similarities
(6) Sperm from backbone and ribs? Are you out of your mind. Fluid ejected is semen not sperm. Moresoever this has been addressed in my post #194. 'Sulb' means loins whereas 'taraeb' means the female anatomy that deals with pregnancy , birth etc.
(7) Prof Bart Ehrman has this to say about the King James Bible
“The King James version is filled with places in which the translators rendered a Greek text derived ultimately from Erasmus’ edition, which was based on a single twelfth century manuscript that is one of the worst that we now have available to us!”
This is also confirmed by other biblical textual scholars, including Geza Vermes (‘The Authentic Gospel of Jesus’, and James Allegro as well as John Dominic Crossan)
In addition ,
“The King James was not given by God but was a translation by a group of scholars in the early seventeenth century who based their rendition on a faulty Greek text. Later translators based their translations on Greek texts that were better…but not perfect”
(Misquoting Jesus: The Story Behind Who Changed the Bible and Why’, 2005 , pg 209)
(8) Muslims claim that there are different versions of the bible. Different versions , not different translations.
The dating was done by a lab devoted to such things in Oxford. It turns out that there is a 95% chance that these pages were produced between 568 and 645 CE. How good is that? The prophet Mohammed, who (in traditional Islamic teaching) was responsible for producing the Qur’an was engaged in his active ministry in 610-632 CE. These pages may have been produced during his lifetime or in a decade or so later.
The Uthmanic text was done up ~ 653CE. We now have a part Quran before the Uthmanic Text that shows no change in the Quran. This shows that the Quran has been unchanged as commented by Prof Ehrman
(10) Why don't you ask the Catholics whether thet worship Mary or not. Consider the prayer Hail Holy Queen or in latin Salve Regina
“Hail, holy Queen, Mother of Mercy! Our life, our sweetness and our hope! To thee do we cry, poor banished children of Eve. To thee do we send up our sighs, mourning and weeping, in this valley of tears. Turn, then, most gracious Advocate, thine eyes of mercy toward us; and after this our exile show unto us the blessed fruit of thy womb, Jesus. O clement, O loving, O sweet Virgin Mary.”
Regarding the meaning of this word Nelson's Illustrated Bible Dictionary defines the "Cross" as:
an upright wooden stake or post on which Jesus was executed... the Greek word for cross referred primarily to a pointed stake used in rows to form the walls of a defensive stockade.[12]
Vine's Expository Dictionary Of New Testament Words defines the Greek word stauros as:
Stauros denotes, primarily, "an upright pale or stake." On such malefactors were nailed for execution...
The method of execution was borrowed by the Greeks and Romans from the Phoenicians. The stauros denotes (a) "the cross, or stake itself," e.g., Matt. 27:32; (b) "the crucifixion suffered," e.g., 1 Cor. 1:17,18, where "the word of the cross," RV, stands for the Gospel; Gal. 5:11, where crucifixion is metaphorically used of the renunciation of the world, that characterizes the true Christian life; Gal. 6:12,14; Eph. 2:16; Phil. 3:18.[13]
According to A Dictionary of Bible, Dealing With Its Language, Literature And Contents, Including The Biblical Theology, in New Testament usage the word stauros seems only to refer to the true "cross":
[Stauros] means properly a stake, and is the tr. [i.e., translation] not merely of the Latin crux (cross), but of palus (stake) as well. As used in NT, however, it refers evidently not to the simple stake used for impaling, of which widespread punishment crucifixion was a refinement, but to the more elaborate cross used by the Romans in the time of Christ.[14]
The opinion that the New Testament usage of stauros refers only to the true "cross" is not strictly true. The term stauros actually has a much wider application, being used to refer to both a single stake and a crossbeam. In Hastings' Dictionary Of The Bible he states:
The Greek term rendered 'cross' in the English NT is stauros (stauroo = 'crucify'), which has a wider application than we ordinarily give to 'cross' being used of a single stake or upright beam as well as of a cross composed of two beams.[15]
(12) The Quran does not deny the process of crucifixion. Crucifixion is a means of execution. The Quran denies that Prophet Eesa(as) (Jesus to you) was crucified , meaning he died on the cross. The bible is also not clear whether Jesus died on the cross. Hence it is conjecture to say Jesus died on the cross.
(13) Substitionary atonement (ie. Jesus dying for your sins) is a pagan concept. Someone else need to die for the sins of others. Why can't God just forgive sins? BTW , this doctrine of 'substitution atonement'. actually this idea was from John Calvin ~ 16th century. Before that , the view of atonement was Christ victory over satan. Can you now see how the said doctrine has been corrupted over the years?
Can you now respond? Oops .... I forsee another irrelevant copy paste (without understanding) coming .... LOL
‘We Muslims believe that Jesus was a prophet. Why don’t you Christians recognize Muhammad as a prophet?’
‘If we recognized Muhammad as a prophet, we would be Muslims, not Christians.’
‘Yes but your Bible speaks of Muhammad. Jesus Himself predicted his coming.’
‘Here is a Bible, can you tell me where it mentions Muhammad?’
‘I don’t know, but the Qur’an says he is predicted in your Bible!’
For many years, Muslim apologists have tried to find predictions of Muhammad’s coming in the Tawrat, Zabur and Injil, but to no avail. This chapter will examine three main passages that are referred to as supposed predictions of the coming of Muhammad.
I. Is Muhammad mentioned in the Tawrat?
Muslims refer to Deuteronomy 18:18 (Tawrat) where God says to Moses, “I will raise up for them a Prophet like you from among their brethren, and will put My words in His mouth, and He shall speak to them all that I command Him.”Muslims believe that this prophet was Muhammad. Abraham had two sons; Ishmael and Isaac. It is assumed that ‘theirbrethren’ refers to the Ishmaelites, and since Muhammad was descended from Ishmael, he must be the prophet. However, a brief look at the background of the prophecy reveals that it was not the Ishmaelites who were in mind.
Who is God referring to with the words "them" and "their"?
My father used to work as an Arabic teacher. He often helped me with my Arabic homework. Whenever I asked him about the meaning of a word he would tell me to read the whole sentence or paragraph. I usually discovered the meaning myself just by reading the word in context! This is exactly what we must do when we read the Bible. We can’t just pick a word or paragraph out of context and make it say what we want. We must look at the whole context.
This prophecy is part of a discourse in which God gave Moses certain directions about the way the people of Israel (especially the Levite tribe) should conduct themselves once they reached the promised land. The first two verses of the chapter clearly reveal who God was referring to as ‘their brethren:’ “The priests, the Levites—all the tribe of Levi—shall have no part nor inheritance with Israel; they shall eat the offerings of the Lord made by fire, and His portion. Therefore they shall have no inheritance among their brethren; the Lord is their inheritance, as He said to them” (Deuteronomy 18:1-2).
It is clear that God is talking about the Levites. ‘Their brethren’ are the other tribes of Israel. Moses states that God will raise up a prophet like himself from among the Jews, from among their brethren. The prophet will be a Jew. Muhammad was not a Jew. He was born an Arab. The Arab people are not one of the tribes of Israel. So Muhammad was not Moses’ brother.
Who then fits the description of a prophet like Moses? Jesus Christ does. The New Testament (Injil) as a whole makes it plain that Moses’ prophecy in Deuteronomy Chapter 18 was fulfilled in Jesus Christ of Nazareth. Jesus Himself said, “if you believed Moses, you would believe Me; for he wrote about Me” (John 5:46-47). He never said “Moses wrote about Muhammad.”
In the Gospel of John 1:45, we read words spoken by the apostle Philip: “We have found Him of whom Moses in the law, and also the prophets, wrote—Jesus of Nazareth.” Jesus was born of the tribe of Judah through Mary. Thus He was a Jew, an Israelite like Moses.
In Acts chapter 7 of the New Testament, Stephen says clearly that Moses foretold Jesus Christ. The apostle Peter declares the same thing in Acts 3:19-23, “Repent therefore and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, so that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord, and that He may send Jesus Christ, who was preached to you before, whom heaven must receive until the times of restoration of all things, which God has spoken by the mouth of all His holy prophets since the world began. For Moses truly said to the fathers, ‘The Lord your God will raise up for you a Prophet like me from your brethren. Him you shall hear in all things, whatever He says to you. And it shall be that every soul who will not hear that Prophet shall be utterly destroyed from among the people.’”
II. Are there predictions of Muhammad in any other part of the Old Testament?
A second verse that Muslim apologists refer to in support of their claims is Isaiah 29:12 – “Then the book is delivered to one who is illiterate, saying, ‘Read this, please.’ And he says, ‘I am not literate.’”Muslims insist that: (a) the book referred to in this verse is the Qur’an; (b) the one to whom the book is delivered is Muhammad; and (c) the one who orders Muhammad to read the book is Gabriel. They suggest that Muhammad fits the description of this individual, since he was illiterate when the angel Gabriel revealed the words of Allah to him.
Once again we must not take the words out of their context. To understand the context of the verse, we must remember that Isaiah (who lived in the 8th century B.C.) is known as the ‘messianic prophet’ because he prophesied so many details about Jesus Christ—not Muhammad. In Isaiah 29 God pronounces judgements on Judah for her sins at that time (i.e. 702 B.C.).
The passage indicates that within a year, the great Assyrian king Sennacherib would lay siege to Jerusalem (vs. 3).Jerusalem (called ‘Ariel’) would be attacked by her enemies and punished for her sins against God, and then those enemies in turn would receive their just deserts (vs. 4-8).
God’s people were in deliberate spiritual blindness. To them the Bible was a closed book, andJudah’s false prophets were not helping the situation (vs. 9-10). Notice that Isaiah then describes the unwillingness of the people of his day to heed the truth, by comparing them to a literate person who is told to read something, but refuses, excusing himself by saying the document is sealed (vs. 11). Isaiah then likens the people to an illiterate person, who excuses himself by saying he cannot read (vs. 12).
The point is that the people of Isaiah’s day refused to pay attention to God’s Holy Word as spoken through His prophets. They did not want it! Verses 13-16 explain that because of their closed minds, they will suffer for their rejection of God’s Word when the Assyrians arrive to besiege the city, but, as usual, God reveals a better day when people will listen (vs. 17ff.).
Having examined the context, it is evident that these verses have nothing to do with Muhammad!
III. Is there a prophecy about Muhammad in the Injil?
‘According to your Bible, didn’t Jesus speak of a prophet to come whom he called the Helper? This is obviously a prophecy about Muhammad.’
Muslims often make this claim. After all, the Qur’an declares, “And when Jesus son of Mary said: O Children of Israel! Lo! I am the messenger of Allah unto you, confirming that which was (revealed) before me in the Torah, and bringing good tidings of a messenger who cometh after me, whose name is Ahmad (the Praised One)” (Qur'an 61:6).
Muslims appeal to verses like John 14:16-20, where Jesus says, “And I will pray the Father, and He will give you another Helper..”Most Muslims quote only the first half of this verse, and then shut the Bible! If Jesus stopped at this point, one could speculate about the identity of this Helper. But Jesus clearly identifies Him by continuing, “that He (the Helper) may abide with you forever - the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it neither sees Him nor knows Him; but you know Him, for He dwells with you and will be in you.”
From the earliest centuries of Islam, Muslim scholars have endeavoured to prove that this Helper was Muhammad, the prophet of Islam. It is argued that the Greek word paracletos, which is translated ‘Helper,’ should be pareklutosor ‘praised one,’ meaning Ahmad or Muhammad. This is proof, they say, that the Biblical text has been changed! However, any knowledgeable scholar in the field will tell you that there is no evidence at all for this ‘corruption.’ All of the Greek manuscripts in existence, which predate Muhammad, say parakletos, not paraklutos. There are more than 70 Greek manuscripts of the New Testament in existence today, dating from before the time of Muhammad, and not one of them uses the word paraklutos! All use the word parakletos. In fact the word paraklutos does not appear anywhere in the Bible!
Let us look at the specific details of the arrival and identity of this parakletos, ‘Helper,’ and see if they fit Muhammad:
1) He will give you another Helper
Even if, as Muslims claim, the original word was Paraklutos, the sentence would read, “He will give you another praised one.” It makes no sense and is completely out of context. What Jesus is saying here is this, ‘I have been your Helper, Counselor, Comforter. I still have many things to teach you, but I will send you another Helper like me.’
2) He will give you another Helper - The Spirit of Truth
The one obvious fact that emerges is that the Helper is a Spirit. Has Muhammad ever been called the Spirit of Truth?
3) He will abide with you forever
In no sense was Muhammad ever with Jesus’ disciples, let alone permanently. Muhammad was born in the 7th century after Christ. He lived only 62 years and then died. He did not live with his companions forever, did he? His body was buried in Medina. But Jesus said that the promised Helper would be with His disciples forever. The one referred to cannot possibly be Muhammad.
4) The Spirit of Truth whom the world cannot see
According to this prophecy, the world cannot receive the Helper because it can’t see Him. Thousands of people saw Muhammad during his lifetime, for he was visible. The invisible Helper cannot be the visible Muhammad.
5) You know Him for He dwells with you
Jesus is clearly talking about someone with whom the disciples were familiar. Was Muhammad known to them? Of course not. He was born more than five hundred years later.
6) He dwells in you
The Helper was to be in the disciples. How could the Helper be Muhammad? Muhammad was a flesh and blood person who is no longer alive. Muhammad is not in Jesus’ followers and never will be.
What can we conclude? Was Muhammad alive at the time of Jesus’ apostles? No. Was Muhammad ever called the ‘Spirit of Truth’? No. Did Muhammad live with the apostles forever? No. Did Muhammad live inside the apostles? No. This prophesy cannot be a reference to Muhammad. Who is it about? The Bible states the truth in the following verses. “But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in My name, He will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all things that I said to you.” (John 14:26). It is certain, then, that the Helper is the Holy Spirit (Ruh Al-Kudus) of God.
The fulfilment of this prophecy occurred within a matter of days.Only fifty days after the resurrection of Jesus, the disciples received the Helper on the day of Pentecost. Jesus had told them to wait in Jerusalem until the Holy Spirit, the Helper, should come (Acts 1.4-8). The Holy Spirit came upon them while they were all together, praying in the city. “They were all filled with the Holy Spirit” (Acts 2.3-4). The Holy Spirit was with the disciples in the person of Jesus while Jesus was still on earth, and the Holy Spirit was in the disciples’ hearts from the day of Pentecost and forever.
The Helper is indeed the Holy Spirit of the living God. We all need Him to open our eyes so that we can see who Jesus is and what He has done for sinners like us. The Helper is only given to those who believe the Gospel; that Jesus died for our sins and rose again. This is what makes someone a Christian. Only those who believe receive the Helper. You can receive the Holy Spirit today by genuinely inviting Jesus into your life and receiving Him as your Saviour.
Conclusion
All of these verses, (and others that Muslims refer to), can be understood with a little study and consideration of the context. Those who apply these passages to Muhammad demonstrate that they have only a superficial understanding of the Bible. The truth is available for anyone who is willing to examine it. Searching for the truth requires effort, yet it can be done. As Jesus said, “You shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free” (John 8:32).
Muslims and Christians alike agree that Christ's coming was often predicted in the Old Testament (Tawrat + Zabur + the writings of the prophets). If God had intended to send another prophet who would be far greater than Jesus Christ, surely we would find predictions about him too. None are to be found. There was no need for another prophet to come after Jesus. When Adam and Eve sinned against God, man’s relationship with God was broken. However, because God is full of compassion and mercy, He promised to send a Saviour (not just a prophet) to rescue the world. People try to escape God’s judgment by relying entirely on their good works, but as we have already seen, God’s Word says we can never please God by how good our lives are. We are not able to make amends for our sins. We are hopeless. But God decided to have mercy on us. He knew that there was only one way to resolve our problem: to deal with it Himself. We did not need someone who was just a great prophet. We needed a Saviour who came to take away our sins.
All the prophets - Noah, Abraham, Moses, David and others - remind us of God’s promise. They prophesied and described the Saviour who would come. Later, when the prophet John the Baptist saw Jesus, he said that Jesus was the promised Saviour, the fulfilment of God’s pledge to Adam and Eve. If the promised Saviour has come, why should we look for someone else?
Jesus said, “I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through Me” (John 14:6). Notice that Jesus did not say ‘I am one way among many that will be shown to you in the future.’ No, He said that He is the only way to paradise. Jesus was able to make this claim because He died on the cross to take the punishment that our sins deserve. That is how our sins are dealt with. It was not Buddha, Muhammad or any other person who died on the cross to pay for our sins. The Holy book, the Bible, tells us that “there is salvation in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved” (Acts 4:12). There is no other way to God and salvation except through Jesus. Jesus' sacrifice on the cross is sufficient. You don't need another prophet or another name. One greater than a prophet, a Saviour, has come. Only Jesus can restore your relationship with God. Only Jesus can forgive us our sin and give us eternal life. Only He can make you sure that you will go to paradise.
Ha ha , why do still repeat copy paste (which you don't understand) that has been explained and refuted? Can you refer to my responses in posts 85 , 87 , 89 , 91 , 94 , 97 , 102.
This is evidence that you cannot think for yourself and you don't understand what you read.
The following is an example of the mental gymnastics christians like you appeal to (from your copy paste)
II. Are there predictions of Muhammad in any other part of the Old Testament?
A second verse that Muslim apologists refer to in support of their claims is Isaiah 29:12 – “Then the book is delivered to one who is illiterate, saying, ‘Read this, please.’ And he says, ‘I am not literate.’”Muslims insist that: (a) the book referred to in this verse is the Qur’an; (b) the one to whom the book is delivered is Muhammad; and (c) the one who orders Muhammad to read the book is Gabriel. They suggest that Muhammad fits the description of this individual, since he was illiterate when the angel Gabriel revealed the words of Allah to him.
Once again we must not take the words out of their context. To understand the context of the verse, we must remember that Isaiah (who lived in the 8th century B.C.) is known as the ‘messianic prophet’ because he prophesied so many details about Jesus Christ—not Muhammad. In Isaiah 29 God pronounces judgements on Judah for her sins at that time (i.e. 702 B.C.).
The passage indicates that within a year, the great Assyrian king Sennacherib would lay siege to Jerusalem (vs. 3).Jerusalem (called ‘Ariel’) would be attacked by her enemies and punished for her sins against God, and then those enemies in turn would receive their just deserts (vs. 4-8).
God’s people were in deliberate spiritual blindness. To them the Bible was a closed book, andJudah’s false prophets were not helping the situation (vs. 9-10). Notice that Isaiah then describes the unwillingness of the people of his day to heed the truth, by comparing them to a literate person who is told to read something, but refuses, excusing himself by saying the document is sealed (vs. 11). Isaiah then likens the people to an illiterate person, who excuses himself by saying he cannot read (vs. 12).
The point is that the people of Isaiah’s day refused to pay attention to God’s Holy Word as spoken through His prophets. They did not want it! Verses 13-16 explain that because of their closed minds, they will suffer for their rejection of God’s Word when the Assyrians arrive to besiege the city, but, as usual, God reveals a better day when people will listen (vs. 17ff.).
Having examined the context, it is evident that these verses have nothing to do with Muhammad!
The context of isa29:12 is very precise that a certain book is delivered to a person who is illiterate. 2 points here
- delivered to and being asked to read it
- the person is illiterate
This can only mean 1 person - Prophet Muhammad(saw). When Archangel Gabriel delivered the Quran , the first word was 'IQRA' which means read. Prophet Muhammad(saw) was illiterate and he admitted that he could not read.
LOL , in trying to deny this you Christians apply mental gymnastics and claim that illiterate here in context of your understanding is that the person who deny the message. Such is denial , it is not being illiterate.
Too bad for you .... you have been caught out again by your bible again and again and again .....
Author
Post time 20-5-2016 02:19 PM
) and Muhammad (
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